THE MONEY MARKET PORTFOLIOS

The U.S. Government Money Market Portfolio

November 1, 2026

Form N-1A, Part B

Item 14. Cover Page and Table of Contents

(a) Cover Page

The Money Market Portfolios (Trust) is an open-end management investment company, commonly called a mutual fund. Currently, the Trust has one series, the shares of beneficial interest of which are available only to other investment companies. The series is The U.S. Government Money Market Portfolio (Fund). The Fund's investment goal is to provide investors with as high a level of current income as is consistent with the preservation of shareholders' capital and liquidity. The Fund also tries to maintain a stable $1.00 share price.

This Part B, referred to as the Statement of Additional Information (SAI), is not a prospectus. It contains information in addition to the information in the Fund's Part A, referred to as the prospectus. The Fund's prospectus, dated November 1, 2026, which we may amend from time to time, contains the basic information you should know before investing in the Fund. You should read this SAI together with the Fund's prospectus.

The audited financial statements and Report of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm in the Fund's Form N-CSR, for the fiscal year ended June 30, 2026, are incorporated by reference (are legally a part of this SAI).

The Fund issues its shares only in private placement transactions that do not involve a public offering within the meaning of Section 4(2) of the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (1933 Act). Shares of the Fund are sold only to “accredited investors,” as defined in Regulation D under the 1933 Act. Accredited investors include common or commingled trust funds, investment companies and other institutional investors.

For a free copy of the current prospectus, shareholder report, and/or financial statements, contact your investment representative or call (800) DIAL BEN/342-5236.

Investment company shares, annuities, and other investment products:

• are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Reserve Board, or any other agency of the U.S. government;

• are not deposits or obligations of, or guaranteed or endorsed by, any bank;

• are subject to investment risks, including the possible loss of principal.

2

(b) Table of Contents

Item 14. Cover Page and Table of Contents

Item 15. Fund History

Item 16. Description of the Fund and its Investments and Risks

Item 17. Management of the Fund

Item 18. Control Persons and Principal Holders of Securities

Item 19. Investment Advisory and Other Services

Item 20. Portfolio Managers

Item 21. Brokerage Allocation and Other Policies

Item 22. Capital Stock and Other Securities

Item 23. Purchase, Redemption and Pricing of Shares

Item 24. Taxation of the Fund

Item 25. Underwriters

Item 26. Calculation of Performance Data

Item 27. Financial Statements

1

Item 15. Fund History

The Trust was organized as a Delaware statutory trust (a form of entity formerly known as a business trust) on June 16, 1992, and is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

Item 16. Description of the Fund and its Investments and Risks

The Fund is a diversified series of the Trust, an open-end management investment company, commonly called a mutual fund.

Goals, Strategies and Risks

The following information provided with respect to the Fund is in addition to that included in the Fund's prospectus.

In addition to the main types of investments and strategies undertaken by the Fund as described in the prospectus, the Fund also may invest in other types of instruments and engage in and pursue other investment strategies, which are described in this SAI. Investments and investment strategies with respect to the Fund are discussed in greater detail in the section below entitled "Glossary of Investments, Techniques, Strategies and Their Risks."

Generally, the policies and restrictions discussed in this SAI and in the prospectus apply when the Fund makes an investment. With the exception of (i) compliance with the Fund’s 80% policy as described in the prospectus, (ii) the Fund's limitations on borrowing as described herein, (iii) the Fund’s compliance with the requirements of Rule 2a-7, and (iv) as otherwise noted herein, in most cases, the Fund is not required to sell an investment because circumstances change and the investment no longer meets one or more of the Fund's policies or restrictions. Other than the exceptions described above, if a percentage restriction or limitation is met at the time of investment, a later increase or decrease in the percentage due to a change in the value of portfolio investments will not be considered a violation of the restriction or limitation.

The Fund has adopted certain investment restrictions as fundamental and non-fundamental policies. A fundamental policy may only be changed if the change is approved by (i) more than 50% of the Fund's outstanding shares or (ii) 67% or more of the Fund's shares present at a shareholder meeting if more than 50% of the Fund's outstanding shares are represented at the meeting in person or by proxy, whichever is less. A non-fundamental policy may be changed without the approval of shareholders. You could lose money by investing in the Fund. Although the Fund seeks to preserve the value of your investment at $1.00 per share, it cannot guarantee it will do so. An investment in the Fund is not a bank account and is not insured or guaranteed by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Reserve Board, or any other agency of the U.S. government. The Fund’s sponsor is not required to reimburse the Fund for losses, and you should not expect that the sponsor will provide financial support to the Fund at any time, including during periods of market stress. Shares of the Fund are not deposits or obligations of, or guaranteed or endorsed by, any bank.

For more information about the restrictions of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (1940 Act) on the Fund with respect to borrowing and senior securities, see “Glossary of Investments, Techniques, Strategies and Their Risks - Borrowing” below.

Fundamental Investment Policies

The Fund's investment goal is to provide investors with as high a level of current income as is consistent with the preservation of shareholders' capital and liquidity. The Fund also tries to maintain a stable $1.00 share price.

The Fund may not:

1. Borrow money, except to the extent permitted by the 1940 Act, or any rules, exemptions or interpretations thereunder that may be adopted, granted or issued by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

2. Act as an underwriter, except to the extent the Fund may be deemed to be an underwriter when disposing of securities it owns or when selling its own shares.

3. Make loans if, as a result, more than 33 1/3% of its total assets would be lent to other persons, including other investment companies to the extent permitted by the 1940 Act or any rules, exemptions or interpretations thereunder that may be adopted, granted or issued by the SEC. This limitation does not apply to (i) the lending of portfolio securities, (ii) the purchase of debt securities, other debt instruments, loan participations and/or engaging in direct corporate loans in accordance with its investment goals and policies, and (iii) repurchase agreements to the extent the entry into a repurchase agreement is deemed to be a loan.

2

4. Purchase or sell real estate unless acquired as a result of ownership of securities or other instruments and provided that this restriction does not prevent the Fund from (i) purchasing or selling securities or instruments secured by real estate or interests therein, securities or instruments representing interests in real estate or securities or instruments of issuers that invest, deal or otherwise engage in transactions in real estate or interests therein, and (ii) making, purchasing or selling real estate mortgage loans.

5. Purchase or sell commodities, except to the extent permitted by the 1940 Act or any rules, exemptions or interpretations thereunder that may be adopted, granted or issued by the SEC.

6. Issue senior securities, except to the extent permitted by the 1940 Act or any rules, exemptions or interpretations thereunder that may be adopted, granted or issued by the SEC.

7. Invest more than 25% of its net assets in securities of issuers in any one industry (other than securities issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government or any of its agencies or instrumentalities or securities of other investment companies or certificates of deposit, bankers’ acceptances and other similar obligations of domestic bankers).

8. Purchase the securities of any one issuer (other than the U.S. government or any of its agencies or instrumentalities or securities of other investment companies, whether registered or excluded from registration under Section 3(c) of the 1940 Act) if immediately after such investment (i) more than 5% of the value of its total assets would be invested in such issuer or (ii) more than 10% of the outstanding voting securities of such issuer would be owned by the Fund, except that up to 25% of the value of its total assets may be invested without regard to such 5% and 10% limitations.¹

1. The Fund will be considered to have satisfied this restriction if it is in compliance with Rule 2a-7(d)(3) and (e) under the 1940 Act (or any successor rule thereto).

Non-Fundamental Investment Policies

The Fund:

1. May invest in obligations or instruments issued by banks and savings institutions only if such bank or savings institution has assets of at least $1 billion.

2. May invest in an obligation issued by a branch of a bank only if the parent bank has assets of at least $5 billion.

3. May not make any new investments while any outstanding loans exceed 5% of its total assets.

4. Only intends to buy stripped securities that are issued or guaranteed by the U.S. Treasury or by an agency or instrumentality of the U.S. government.

5. May not invest more than 5% of its total assets (measured at the time of acquisition) in illiquid securities, as defined under applicable regulation.

6. Will invest 100% of its assets in securities with remaining maturities of 397 calendar days or less. Maturity, for purposes of this policy, is calculated in accordance with Rule 2a-7, including Rule 2a-7's maturity shortening provisions.

Glossary of Investments, Techniques, Strategies and Their Risks

Certain words or phrases may be used in descriptions of Fund investment policies and strategies to give investors a general sense of the Fund's levels of investment. They are broadly identified with, but not limited to, the following percentages of Fund total assets:

3

If the Fund intends to limit particular investments or strategies to no more than specific percentages of Fund assets, the prospectus or SAI will clearly identify such limitations. The percentages above are not limitations unless specifically stated as such in the Fund's prospectus or elsewhere in this SAI.

The Fund may invest in securities that are rated by various rating agencies such as Moody's Ratings (Moody's), S&P^® Global Ratings (S&P) and Fitch Ratings (Fitch), as well as securities that are unrated.

The following are requirements for money market fund investments, and securities and techniques used by the Fund:

Liquidity The Fund may not invest more than 5% of its total assets (measured at the time of acquisition) in illiquid securities, as defined under applicable regulation.

The Fund is required to invest at least 25% of its total assets (measured at the time of acquisition) in "daily liquid assets" and at least 50% of its total assets (measured at the time of acquisition) in "weekly liquid assets”. "Daily liquid assets" are cash (including demand deposits), direct obligations of the U.S. Government and securities (including repurchase agreements) that will mature or are subject to a demand feature that is exercisable and payable within one business day or amounts receivable and due unconditionally within one business day on pending sales of portfolio securities. "Weekly liquid assets" are cash (including demand deposits), direct obligations of the U.S. Government, U.S. Government agency/instrumentality discount notes (without provision for the payment of interest) with remaining maturities of 60 calendar days or less, and securities (including repurchase agreements) that will mature or are subject to a demand feature that is exercisable and payable within five business days or amounts receivable and due unconditionally within five business days on pending sales of portfolio securities. For purposes of these two definitions, maturity is determined without reference to the maturity shortening exceptions in Rule 2a-7 regarding interest rate readjustments.

Maturity. The Fund is required to maintain a dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity of no greater than 60 calendar days and the Fund is required to maintain a dollar-weighted average life of no greater than 120 calendar days. “Weighted average life” is portfolio maturity measured without reference to provisions that otherwise permit the maturity of certain adjustable rate securities to be deemed to be “shortened” to their interest rate reset dates.

Suspension of redemptions. In the event that (a) the Fund, at the end of a business day, has invested less than 10% of its total assets in weekly liquid assets or (b) the Fund’s price per share as computed for the purpose of distribution, redemption and repurchase, rounded to the nearest 1%, has deviated from the stable price established by the Fund’s board of trustees or (c) the Trust’s board of trustees, including a majority of trustees who are not interested persons of the Trust as defined in the 1940 Act, determines that such a deviation is likely to occur, and the board of trustees, including a majority of trustees who are not interested persons of the Trust, irrevocably has approved the liquidation of the Fund, the Fund's board of trustees has the authority to suspend redemptions of Fund shares.

The following is a description of various types of securities, instruments and techniques that may be purchased and/or used by the Fund:

Borrowing The 1940 Act and the SEC's current rules, exemptions and interpretations thereunder, permit the Fund to borrow up to one-third of the value of its total assets (including the amount borrowed, but less all liabilities and indebtedness not represented by senior securities) from banks. The Fund is required to maintain continuous asset coverage of at least 300% with respect to such borrowings and to reduce the amount of its borrowings (within three days excluding Sundays and holidays) to restore such coverage if it should decline to less than 300% due to market fluctuations or otherwise. In the event that the Fund is required to reduce its borrowings, it may have to sell portfolio holdings, even if such sale of the Fund's holdings would be disadvantageous from an investment standpoint.

If the Fund makes additional investments while borrowings are outstanding, this may be considered a form of leverage. Leveraging by means of borrowing may exaggerate the effect of any increase or decrease in the value of portfolio securities on the Fund's net asset value, and money borrowed will be subject to interest and other costs (which may include commitment fees and/or the cost of maintaining minimum average balances), which may or may not exceed the income or gains received from the securities purchased with borrowed funds.

In addition to borrowings that are subject to 300% asset coverage and are considered by the SEC to be permitted “senior securities,” the Fund is also permitted under the 1940 Act to borrow for temporary purposes in an amount not exceeding 5% of the value of its total assets at the time when the loan is made. A loan will be presumed to be for temporary purposes if it is repaid within 60 days and is not extended or renewed.

4

Debt securities - general description In general, a debt security represents a loan of money to the issuer by the purchaser of the security. A debt security typically has a fixed payment schedule that obligates the issuer to pay interest to the lender and to return the lender's money over a certain time period. A company typically meets its payment obligations associated with its outstanding debt securities before it declares and pays any dividend to holders of its equity securities. Bonds, notes and commercial paper are examples of debt securities and differ in the length of the issuer's principal repayment schedule, with bonds carrying the longest repayment schedule and commercial paper the shortest:

Bonds. A bond is a debt security in which investors lend money to an entity that borrows for a defined period of time, usually a period of more than five years, at a specified interest rate.

Commercial paper. Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-term loan to a corporation, typically for financing accounts receivable and inventory with maturities of up to 270 days.

Debentures. A debenture is an unsecured debt security backed only by the creditworthiness of the borrower, not by collateral.

Bills. A bill is a short-term debt instrument, usually with a maturity of two years or less.

Notes. A note is a debt security usually with a maturity of up to ten years.

For purposes of the discussion in this SAI of the risks of investing in debt securities generally, loans or other short-term instruments, which otherwise may not technically be considered securities, are included.

Debt securities are all generally subject to interest rate, credit, income and prepayment risks and, like all investments, are subject to liquidity and market risks to varying degrees depending upon the specific terms and type of security. The Fund's investment manager attempts to reduce credit and market risk through diversification of the Fund's portfolio and ongoing credit analysis of each issuer, as well as by monitoring economic developments, but there can be no assurance that it will be successful at doing so.

Illiquid securities Generally, an “illiquid security” or “illiquid investment” is any investment that cannot be disposed of partially or in full in the ordinary course of business within seven days at approximately the amount at which the Fund has valued the instruments. Illiquid investments generally include investments for which no market exists or which are legally restricted as to their transfer (such as those issued pursuant to an exemption from the registration requirements of the federal securities laws). Restricted securities are generally sold in privately negotiated transactions, pursuant to an exemption from registration under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (1933 Act). If registration of a security previously acquired in a private transaction is required, the Fund, as the holder of the security, may be obligated to pay all or part of the registration expense and a considerable period may elapse between the time it decides to seek registration and the time it will be permitted to sell a security under an effective registration statement. If, during such a period, adverse market conditions were to develop, the Fund might obtain a less favorable price than prevailed when it decided to seek registration of the security. To the extent it is determined that there is a liquid institutional or other market for certain restricted securities, the Fund would consider them to be liquid securities. An example is a restricted security that may be freely transferred among qualified institutional buyers pursuant to Rule 144A under the 1933 Act, and for which a liquid institutional market has developed. Rule 144A securities may be subject, however, to a greater possibility of becoming illiquid than securities that have been registered with the SEC.

The following factors may be taken into account in determining whether a restricted security is properly considered a liquid security: (i) the frequency of trades and quotes for the security; (ii) the number of dealers willing to buy or sell the security and the number of other potential buyers; (iii) any dealer undertakings to make a market in the security; and (iv) the nature of the security and of the marketplace trades (e.g., any demand, put or tender features, the method of soliciting offers, the mechanics and other requirements for transfer, and the ability to assign or offset the rights and obligations of the security). The nature of the security and its trading includes the time needed to sell the security, the method of soliciting offers to purchase or sell the security, and the mechanics of transferring the security including the role of parties such as foreign or U.S. custodians, subcustodians, currency exchange brokers, and depositories.

The sale of illiquid investments often requires more time and results in higher brokerage charges or dealer discounts and other selling expenses than the sale of investments eligible for trading on national securities exchanges or in the over-the-counter (OTC) markets. Illiquid investments often sell at a price lower than similar investments that are not subject to restrictions on resale.

The risk to the Fund in holding illiquid investments is that they may be more difficult to sell if the Fund wants to dispose of the investment in response to adverse developments or in order to raise money for redemptions or other investment opportunities. Illiquid trading conditions may also make it more difficult for the Fund to realize an investment's fair value.

5

The Fund may also be unable to achieve its desired level of exposure to a certain investment, issuer, or sector due to overall limitations on its ability to invest in illiquid investments and the difficulty in purchasing such investments.

Interfund lending program Pursuant to an exemptive order granted by the SEC (Lending Order), the Fund has the ability to lend money to, and borrow money from, other Franklin Templeton funds for temporary purposes (Interfund Lending Program) pursuant to a master interfund lending agreement (Interfund Loan). Lending and borrowing through the Interfund Lending Program provides the borrowing fund with a lower interest rate than it would have paid if it borrowed money from a bank, and provides the lending fund with an alternative short-term investment with a higher rate of return than other available short-term investments. All Interfund Loans would consist only of uninvested cash reserves that the lending fund otherwise would invest in short-term repurchase agreements or other short-term instruments. The Fund may only participate in the Interfund Lending Program to the extent permitted by its investment goal(s), policies and restrictions and only subject to meeting the conditions of the Lending Order.

The limitations of the Interfund Lending Program are described below and these and the other conditions of the Lending Order permitting interfund lending are designed to minimize the risks associated with interfund lending for both the lending and borrowing fund. However, no borrowing or lending activity is without risk. When a fund borrows money from another fund under the Interfund Lending Program, there is a risk that the Interfund Loan could be called on one business day’s notice, in which case the borrowing fund may have to utilize a line of credit, which would likely involve higher rates, seek an Interfund Loan from another fund, or liquidate portfolio securities if no lending sources are available to meet its liquidity needs. Interfund Loans are subject to the risk that the borrowing fund could be unable to repay the loan when due, and a delay in repayment could result in a lost opportunity by the lending fund or force the lending fund to borrow or liquidate securities to meet its liquidity needs.

Under the Interfund Lending Program, the Fund may borrow on an unsecured basis through the Interfund Lending Program if its outstanding borrowings from all sources immediately after the borrowing total 10% or less of its total assets, provided that if the Fund has a secured loan outstanding from any other lender, including but not limited to another fund, the Fund’s Interfund Loan will be secured on at least an equal priority basis with at least an equivalent percentage of collateral to loan value as any outstanding loan that requires collateral. If the Fund’s total outstanding borrowings immediately after an Interfund Loan exceed 10% of its total assets, the Fund may borrow through the Interfund Lending Program on a secured basis only. The Fund may not borrow under the Interfund Lending Program or from any other source if its total outstanding borrowings immediately after such borrowing would be more than 33 1/3% of its total assets or any lower threshold provided for by the Fund’s investment restrictions.

If the Fund has outstanding bank borrowings, any Interfund Loans to the Fund would: (a) be at an interest rate equal to or lower than that of any outstanding bank loan, (b) be secured at least on an equal priority basis with at least an equivalent percentage of collateral to loan value as any outstanding bank loan that requires collateral, (c) have a maturity no longer than any outstanding bank loan (and in any event not over seven days), and (d) provide that, if an event of default by the Fund occurs under any agreement evidencing an outstanding bank loan to the Fund, that event of default will automatically (without need for action or notice by the lending fund) constitute an immediate event of default under the interfund lending agreement, entitling the lending fund to call the Interfund Loan (and exercise all rights with respect to any collateral), and that such call would be made if the lending bank exercises its right to call its loan under its agreement with the borrowing fund.

In addition, no fund may lend to another fund through the Interfund Lending Program if the loan would cause the lending fund’s aggregate outstanding loans through the Interfund Lending Program to exceed 15% of its current net assets at the time of the loan. A fund’s Interfund Loans to any one fund shall not exceed 5% of the lending fund’s net assets. The duration of Interfund Loans will be limited to the time required to obtain cash sufficient to repay such Interfund Loan, either through the sale of portfolio securities or the net sales of the fund’s shares, but in no event more than seven days, and for purposes of this condition, loans effected within seven days of each other will be treated as separate loan transactions. Each Interfund Loan may be called on one business day’s notice by a lending fund and may be repaid on any day by a borrowing fund.

Investment grade debt securities Investment grade debt securities are securities that are rated at the time of purchase in the top four ratings categories by one or more independent rating organizations such as Fitch (rated BBB- or better), S&P (rated BBB- or better), or Moody’s (rated Baa3 or higher) or, if unrated, are determined to be of comparable quality by the Fund’s investment manager. Generally, a higher rating indicates the rating agency’s opinion that there is less risk of default of obligations thereunder including timely repayment of principal and payment of interest. Debt securities in the lowest investment grade category may have speculative characteristics and more closely resemble high-yield debt securities than investment-grade debt securities. Lower-rated securities may be subject to all the risks applicable to high-yield debt securities and changes in economic conditions or other circumstances are more likely to lead to a weakened capacity to make principal and interest payments than is the case with higher grade debt securities.

A number of risks associated with rating agencies apply to the purchase or sale of investment grade debt securities.

6

Repurchase agreements Under a repurchase agreement, the Fund agrees to buy securities guaranteed as to payment of principal and interest by the U.S. government or its agencies or instrumentalities from a qualified bank, broker-dealer or other counterparty and then to sell the securities back to such counterparty on an agreed upon date (generally less than seven days) at a higher price, which reflects currently prevailing short-term interest rates. Entering into repurchase agreements allows the Fund to earn a return on cash in the Fund's portfolio that would otherwise remain un-invested. The counterparty must transfer to the Fund's custodian, as collateral, securities with an initial market value of at least 102% (in the case of a counterparty that is a bank or broker-dealer) or 100% (if the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (FRBNY) is the counterparty) of the dollar amount paid by the Fund to the counterparty. The investment manager will monitor the value of such collateral daily to determine that the value of the collateral equals or exceeds the repurchase price. The Fund considers repurchase agreements with the FRBNY to be U.S. Government securities for purposes of the Fund’s investment policies.

Repurchase agreements may involve risks in the event of default or insolvency of the counterparty, including possible delays or restrictions upon the Fund's ability to sell the underlying securities and additional expenses in seeking to enforce the Fund's rights and recover any losses. The Fund will enter into repurchase agreements only with parties who meet certain creditworthiness standards, i.e., the FRBNY or banks or broker-dealers that the investment manager has determined, based on the information available at the time, present no serious risk of becoming involved in bankruptcy proceedings within the time frame contemplated by the repurchase agreement. Although the Fund seeks to limit the credit risk under a repurchase agreement by carefully selecting counterparties and accepting only high quality collateral, some credit risk remains. The counterparty could default, which may make it necessary for the Fund to incur expenses to liquidate the collateral. In addition, the collateral may decline in value before it can be liquidated by the Fund.

A repurchase agreement with more than seven days to maturity is considered an illiquid security and is subject to the Fund's investment restriction on illiquid securities.

Stripped securities Stripped securities are debt securities that have been transformed from a principal amount with periodic interest coupons into a series of zero coupon bonds, each with a different maturity date corresponding to one of the payment dates for interest coupon payments or the redemption date for the principal amount. Stripped securities are subject to all the risks applicable to zero coupon bonds as well as certain additional risks.

Like zero coupon bonds, stripped securities do not provide for periodic payments of interest prior to maturity. Rather they are offered at a discount from their face amount that will be paid at maturity. This results in the security being subject to greater fluctuations in response to changing interest rates than interest-paying securities of similar maturities. Federal income taxes generally accrue on stripped securities each year although no cash income is received until maturity, and the Fund may be required to sell portfolio securities that it would otherwise continue to hold in order to obtain sufficient cash to make distributions to shareholders required for U.S. tax purposes.

The riskiness of an investment in stripped securities depends on the type involved. Some stripped securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. Others receive an implied backing by the U.S. government as a sponsor or partner in the agency or entity issuing the stripped security. A few are secured with a guarantee from the financial institution or broker or dealer through which the stripped security is held. Others are supported only by the collateral, revenue stream or third party guarantee securing the underlying debt obligation from which zero coupon bonds were stripped. Stripped securities include: U.S. Treasury STRIPS, Stripped Government Securities, Stripped Corporate Securities, and Stripped Eurodollar Obligations.

Stripped government securities are issued by the U.S. federal, state and local governments and their agencies and instrumentalities, and by "mixed-ownership government corporations." Stripped government securities vary widely in the terms, conditions and relative assurances of payment. The type of debt obligation from which the stripped government security was taken will indicate many of the risks associated with that investment. U.S. Treasury STRIPS is a type of stripped government securities.

U.S. Treasury STRIPS (Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities) are considered U.S. Treasury securities for purposes of the Fund's investment policies and are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. Their risks are similar to those of other U.S. government securities, although their price may be more volatile. The U.S. Treasury has facilitated transfers of ownership of zero coupon securities by accounting separately for the beneficial ownership of particular interest coupon and principal payments on Treasury securities through the Federal Reserve book-entry record-keeping system.

Temporary investments When the investment manager believes market or economic conditions are unusual or unfavorable for investors, the investment manager may invest up to 100% of the Fund's assets in a temporary defensive manner by holding all or a substantial portion of its assets in cash. The investment manager also may hold cash when securities meeting the Fund's

7

investment criteria are unavailable or to maintain liquidity. In these circumstances, the Fund may be unable to achieve its investment goal.

U.S. government securities U.S. government securities include obligations of, or securities guaranteed by, the U.S. federal government, its agencies, instrumentalities or sponsored enterprises. Some U.S. government securities are supported by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. These include U.S. Treasury obligations and securities issued by the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA). A second category of U.S. government securities are those supported by the right of the agency, instrumentality or sponsored enterprise to borrow from the U.S. government to meet its obligations. These include securities issued by Federal Home Loan Banks.

A third category of U.S. government securities are those supported by only the credit of the issuing agency, instrumentality or sponsored enterprise. These include securities issued by the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) and Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC). In the event of a default, an investor like the Fund would only have legal recourse to the issuer, not the U.S. government. On September 6, 2008, the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) placed Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac into conservatorship. As the conservator, FHFA succeeded to all rights, titles, powers and privileges of FNMA and FHLMC and of any stockholder, officer or director of FNMA and FHLMC. FHFA selected a new chief executive officer and chairman of the board of directors for each of FNMA and FHLMC. Also, the U.S. Treasury entered into a Senior Preferred Stock Purchase Agreement imposing various covenants that severely limit each enterprise's operations.

FNMA and FHLMC continue to operate as going concerns while in conservatorship and each remains liable for all of its obligations, including its guaranty obligations associated with its mortgage-backed securities. The FHFA has the power to repudiate any contract entered into by FNMA and FHLMC prior to FHFA's appointment as conservator or receiver, including the guaranty obligations of FNMA and FHLMC. Accordingly, securities issued by FNMA and FHLMC involve a risk of non-payment of principal and interest.

Although the U.S. government has provided support for these securities in the past, there can be no assurance that it will do so in the future. The U.S. government has also made available additional guarantees for limited periods to stabilize or restore a market in the wake of an economic, political or natural crisis. Such guarantees, and the economic opportunities they present, are likely to be temporary and cannot be relied upon by the Fund. Any downgrade of the credit rating of the securities issued by the U.S. government may result in a downgrade of securities issued by its agencies or instrumentalities, including government-sponsored entities. Guarantees as to the timely payment of principal and interest do not extend to the value or yield of U.S. government securities nor do they extend to the value of the Fund's shares.

Variable rate securities Variable rate securities are debt securities that provide for periodic adjustments in the interest rate paid on the debt security. Floating rate securities, adjustable rate securities and inverse floating rate securities (referred to as "inverse floaters") are types of variable rate securities. An adjustable rate security is a debt security with an interest rate which is adjusted according to a formula that specifies the interval at which the rate will be reset and the interest rate index, benchmark or other mechanism upon which the reset rate is based. A floating rate debt security has a rate of interest which is usually established as the sum of a base lending rate (e.g., the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR), the U.S. Prime Rate, the Prime Rate of a designated U.S. bank or the certificate of deposit rate) plus a specified margin. The interest rate on prime rate-based loans and securities floats periodically as the prime rate changes. The interest rate on SOFR-based and CD-based loans and securities is reset periodically, typically at regular intervals ranging between 30 days and one year. Certain floating rate securities will permit the borrower to select an interest rate reset period of up to one year.

Some variable rate securities are structured with put features that permit holders to demand payment of the unpaid principal balance plus accrued interest from the issuers or certain financial intermediaries at or about the time the interest rate is reset. If the Fund purchases a variable rate security with a put feature and market movements make exercise of the put unattractive, the Fund will forfeit the entire amount of any premium paid plus related transaction costs.

Movements in the relevant index or benchmark on which adjustments are based will affect the interest paid on these securities and, therefore, the current income earned by the Fund and the securities' market value. The degree of volatility in the market value of the variable rate securities held by the Fund will generally increase along with the length of time between adjustments, the degree of volatility in the applicable index, benchmark or base lending rate and whether the index, benchmark or base lending rate to which it resets or floats approximates short-term or other prevailing interest rates. It will also be a function of the maximum increase or decrease of the interest rate adjustment on any one adjustment date, in any one year, and over the life of the security. These maximum increases and decreases are typically referred to as "caps" and "floors," respectively.

8

During periods when short-term interest rates move within the caps and floors of the security held by the Fund, the interest rate of such security will reset to prevailing rates within a short period. As a result, the fluctuation in market value of the variable rate security held by the Fund is generally expected to be limited.

In periods of substantial short-term volatility in interest rates, the market value of such debt securities may fluctuate more substantially if the caps and/or floors prevent the interest rates from adjusting to the full extent of the movements in the market rates during any one adjustment period or over the term of the security. In the event of dramatic increases in interest rates, any lifetime caps on these securities may prevent the securities from adjusting to prevailing rates over the term of the security. In either the case of caps or floors, the market value of the securities may be reduced.

The income earned by the Fund and distributed to shareholders will generally increase or decrease along with movements in the relevant index, benchmark or base lending rate. Thus the Fund's income will be more unpredictable than the income earned on similar investments with a fixed rate of interest.

When-issued and delayed delivery transactions When-issued and delayed delivery transactions are arrangements under which the Fund buys securities that have been authorized but not yet issued, with payment for and delivery of the security scheduled for a future time. To the extent the Fund engages in these transactions, it will do so only for the purpose of acquiring portfolio securities consistent with its investment goals and policies. Although the Fund will generally buy securities on a when-issued basis with the intention of holding the securities, the Fund may sell the securities before the settlement date if the investment manager believes it is advisable to do so.

The Fund relies on the counterparty to complete the transaction. The counterparty's failure to do so may cause the Fund to miss a price or yield considered advantageous to the Fund. Although their price typically reflects accrued interest, securities purchased on a when-issued or delayed delivery basis do not generally earn interest until their scheduled delivery date. Purchases of securities on a when-issued or delayed delivery basis are also subject to the risk that the market value or the yield at delivery may be more or less than the market price or yield available when the transaction was entered into.

Many when-issued or delayed-delivery transactions also are subject to the risk that a counterparty may become bankrupt or otherwise fail to perform its obligations due to financial difficulties, including making payments or fulfilling other obligations to the Fund. The Fund may obtain no or only limited recovery in a bankruptcy or other organizational proceedings, and any recovery may be significantly delayed.

The following is a description of the general risks associated with the Fund's investing in debt securities

Credit Debt securities are subject to the risk of an issuer's (or other party's) failure or inability to meet its obligations under the security. Multiple parties may have obligations under a debt security. An issuer or borrower may fail to pay principal and interest when due. A guarantor, insurer or credit support provider may fail to provide the agreed upon protection. A counterparty to a transaction may fail to perform its side of the bargain. An intermediary or agent interposed between the investor and other parties may fail to perform the terms of its service. Also, performance under a debt security may be linked to the obligations of other persons who may fail to meet their obligations. The credit risk associated with a debt security could increase to the extent that the Fund's ability to benefit fully from its investment in the security depends on the performance by multiple parties of their respective contractual or other obligations. The market value of a debt security is also affected by the market's perception of the creditworthiness of the issuer.

The Fund may incur substantial losses on debt securities that are inaccurately perceived to present a different amount of credit risk than they actually do by the market, the investment manager or the rating agencies. Credit risk is generally greater where less information is publicly available, where fewer covenants safeguard the investors' interests, where collateral may be impaired or inadequate, where little legal redress or regulatory protection is available, or where a party's ability to meet obligations is speculative. Additionally, any inaccuracy in the information used by the Fund to evaluate credit risk may affect the value of securities held by the Fund.

Obligations under debt securities held by the Fund may never be satisfied or, if satisfied, only satisfied in part.

Some securities are subject to risks as a result of a credit downgrade or default by a government, or its agencies or, instrumentalities. Credit risk is a greater concern for high-yield debt securities and debt securities of issuers whose ability to pay interest and principal may be considered speculative. Debt securities are typically classified as investment grade-quality (medium to highest credit quality) or below investment grade-quality (commonly referred to as high-yield or junk bonds). Many individual debt securities are rated by a third party source, such as Moody's, S&P, or Fitch to help describe the creditworthiness of the issuer.

9

Debt securities ratings The investment manager performs its own independent investment analysis of securities being considered for the Fund's portfolio, which includes consideration of, among other things, the issuer's financial resources, its sensitivity to economic conditions and trends, its operating history, the quality of the issuer's management and regulatory matters. The investment manager also considers the ratings assigned by various investment services and independent rating agencies, such as Moody's, S&P, and Fitch, that publish ratings based upon their assessment of the relative creditworthiness of the rated debt securities. Generally, a lower rating indicates higher credit risk. Higher yields are ordinarily available from debt securities in the lower rating categories. These ratings are described at the end of this SAI under “Description of Ratings.”

Using credit ratings to evaluate debt securities can involve certain risks. For example, ratings assigned by the rating agencies are based upon an analysis completed at the time of the rating of the obligor's ability to pay interest and repay principal. Rating agencies typically rely to a large extent on historical data which may not accurately represent present or future circumstances. Ratings do not purport to reflect the risk of fluctuations in market value of the debt security and are not absolute standards of quality and only express the rating agency's current opinion of an obligor's overall financial capacity to pay its financial obligations. A credit rating is not a statement of fact or a recommendation to purchase, sell or hold a debt obligation. Also, credit quality can change suddenly and unexpectedly, and credit ratings may not reflect the issuer's current financial condition or events since the security was last rated. Rating agencies may have a financial interest in generating business, including from the arranger or issuer of the security that normally pays for that rating, and providing a low rating might affect the rating agency's prospects for future business. While rating agencies have policies and procedures to address this potential conflict of interest, there is a risk that these policies will fail to prevent a conflict of interest from impacting the rating.

The following is a description of other risks associated with the Fund's investments:

Artificial intelligence Artificial intelligence refers to computer systems that can perform tasks that would otherwise require human intelligence and encompasses various different forms of artificial intelligence, including machine learning models. Artificial intelligence is typically designed to analyze data, learn from patterns and experiences, make decisions, and solve problems. Artificial intelligence can be categorized into two types: narrow artificial intelligence, which is designed for specific tasks, and general artificial intelligence, which has the ability to perform any intellectual task that a human can do and includes generative artificial intelligence (“GAI”). GAI is a type of artificial intelligence technology that produces new text, images, audio, and other content based on training data that includes examples of the desired output.

Typically, users enter questions, queries, or other inputs that prompt the GAI model or tool to produce output. In addition, some software uses GAI to suggest changes, summarize information, or translate text. Artificial intelligence has various applications in many fields such as healthcare, finance, transportation, and law.

The use of artificial intelligence in general may adversely impact markets, the overall performance of the Fund’s investments, or the services provided to the Fund by its service providers. The investment manager or a third party service provider may use and/or expand its use of artificial intelligence in connection with its business, operating and investment activities and the Fund's investments may also use such technologies. Actual usage of such artificial intelligence will vary, and while the investment manager expects it and the Fund’s third party service provider may, from time to time, adopt and adjust usage policies and procedures governing the use of artificial intelligence by its personnel, there is a risk of misuse of artificial intelligence technologies.

Artificial intelligence is highly reliant on the collection and analysis of large amounts of data and complex algorithms, but it is not possible nor practicable to incorporate all data that would be relevant for a task conducted by artificial intelligence. Therefore, it is possible that the information provided through use of artificial intelligence could be insufficient, incomplete, inaccurate or biased leading to adverse effects for the Fund, including, potentially, operational errors and investment losses.

Artificial intelligence and its current and potential future applications, including in the investment and financial sectors, as well as the regulatory frameworks within which they operate, continue to rapidly evolve, and it is impossible to predict the full extent of future applications or regulations. Ongoing and future regulatory actions with respect to artificial intelligence generally or artificial intelligence's use in any industry in particular may alter, perhaps to a materially adverse extent, the ability of the investment manager, third-party service provider, the Fund or its investments to utilize artificial intelligence in the manner it has to-date, and may have an adverse impact on the ability of any of those entities to continue to operate as intended.

Cybersecurity With the increased use of technologies such as mobile devices and Web-based or “cloud” applications, and the dependence on the Internet and computer systems to conduct business, the Fund is susceptible to operational, information security and related risks. In general, cybersecurity incidents can result from deliberate attacks or unintentional events (arising from external or internal sources) that may cause the Fund to lose proprietary information, suffer data corruption, physical damage to a computer or network system or lose operational capacity. Cybersecurity attacks include, but are not limited to, infection by

10

malicious software, such as malware or computer viruses or gaining unauthorized access to digital systems, networks or devices that are used to service the Fund’s operations (e.g., through “hacking,” “phishing” or malicious software coding) or other means for purposes of misappropriating assets or sensitive information, corrupting data, or causing operational disruption. Cybersecurity attacks may also be carried out in a manner that does not require gaining unauthorized access, such as causing denial-of-service attacks on the Fund’s websites (i.e., efforts to make network services unavailable to intended users). Recently, geopolitical tensions may have increased the scale and sophistication of deliberate cybersecurity attacks, particularly those from nation-states or from entities with nation-state backing. In addition, authorized persons could inadvertently or intentionally release confidential or proprietary information stored on the Fund’s systems.

Cybersecurity incidents affecting the Fund’s investment manager and other service providers to the Fund or its shareholders (including, but not limited to, sub-advisors, accountants, custodians, sub-custodians, transfer agents and financial intermediaries) have the ability to cause disruptions and impact business operations, potentially resulting in financial losses to both the Fund and its shareholders, interference with the Fund’s ability to calculate its net asset value, impediments to trading, the inability of Fund shareholders to transact business and the Fund to process transactions (including fulfillment of purchases and redemptions), violations of applicable privacy and other laws (including the release of private shareholder information) and attendant breach notification and credit monitoring costs, regulatory fines, penalties, litigation costs, reputational damage, reimbursement or other compensation costs, forensic investigation and remediation costs, and/or additional compliance costs. Similar adverse consequences could result from cybersecurity incidents affecting issuers of securities in which the Fund invests, counterparties with which the Fund engages in transactions, governmental and other regulatory authorities, exchange and other financial market operators, banks, brokers, dealers, insurance companies and other financial institutions (including financial intermediaries and other service providers) and other parties. In addition, substantial costs may be incurred in order to safeguard against and reduce the risk of any cybersecurity incidents in the future. In addition to administrative, technological and procedural safeguards, the Fund’s investment manager has established business continuity plans in the event of, and risk management systems to prevent or reduce the impact of, such cybersecurity incidents. However, there are inherent limitations in such plans and systems, including the possibility that certain risks have not been identified, as well as the rapid development of new threats. Furthermore, the Fund cannot control the cybersecurity plans and systems put in place by its service providers or any other third parties whose operations may affect the Fund and its shareholders. The Fund and its shareholders could be negatively impacted as a result.

Because technology is frequently changing, new ways to carry out cyber attacks are always developing. Therefore, there is a chance that some risks have not been identified or prepared for, or that an attack may not be detected, which puts limitations on the Fund's ability to plan for or respond to a cyber attack. Like other funds and business enterprises, the Fund, the investment manager and their service providers are subject to the risk of cyber incidents occurring from time to time.

Extension The market value of some debt securities, particularly mortgage securities and certain asset-backed securities, may be adversely affected when bond calls or prepayments on underlying mortgages or other assets are less or slower than anticipated. This risk is extension risk. Extension risk may result from, for example, rising interest rates or unexpected developments in the markets for the underlying assets or mortgages. As a consequence, the security's effective maturity will be extended, resulting in an increase in interest rate sensitivity to that of a longer-term instrument. Extension risk generally increases as interest rates rise. This is because, in a rising interest rate environment, the rate of prepayment and exercise of call or buy-back rights generally falls and the rate of default and delayed payment generally rises. When the maturity of an investment is extended in a rising interest rate environment, a below-market interest rate is usually locked-in and the value of the security reduced. This risk is greater for fixed-rate than variable-rate debt securities.

Income Income risk is the risk that the Fund's income will decline during periods of falling interest rates, when the Fund experiences defaults on debt securities it holds or when the Fund realizes a loss upon a sale of a debt security. The Fund's income declines when interest rates fall because, as the Fund's higher-yielding debt securities mature, are prepaid or are sold, the Fund may have to re-invest the proceeds in debt securities that have lower interest rates. The amount and rate of distributions that the Fund's shareholders receive are affected by the income that the Fund receives from its portfolio holdings. If the income is reduced, distributions by the Fund to shareholders may be less.

Fluctuations in income paid to the Fund are generally greater for variable rate debt securities. The Fund may be deemed to receive taxable income on certain securities which pay no cash payments until maturity, such as zero-coupon securities. The Fund may be required to sell portfolio securities that it would otherwise continue to hold in order to obtain sufficient cash to make the distribution to shareholders required for U.S. tax purposes.

Inflation The market price of debt securities generally falls as inflation increases because the purchasing power of the future income and repaid principal is expected to be worth less when received by the Fund. Debt securities that pay a fixed rather than

11

variable interest rate are especially vulnerable to inflation risk because variable-rate debt securities may be able to participate, over the long term, in rising interest rates which have historically corresponded with long-term inflationary trends.

Interest rate The market value of debt securities generally varies in response to changes in prevailing interest rates. Interest rate changes can be sudden and unpredictable. In addition, short-term and long-term rates are not necessarily correlated to each other as short-term rates tend to be influenced by government monetary policy while long-term rates are market driven and may be influenced by macroeconomic events (such as economic expansion or contraction), inflation expectations, as well as supply and demand. During periods of declining interest rates, the market value of debt securities generally increases. Conversely, during periods of rising interest rates, the market value of debt securities generally declines. This occurs because new debt securities are likely to be issued with higher interest rates as interest rates increase, making the old or outstanding debt securities less attractive. In general, the market prices of long-term debt securities or securities that make little (or no) interest payments are more sensitive to interest rate fluctuations than shorter-term debt securities. The longer the Fund's average weighted portfolio duration, the greater the potential impact a change in interest rates will have on its share price. Also, certain segments of the fixed income markets, such as high quality bonds, tend to be more sensitive to interest rate changes than other segments, such as lower-quality bonds.

Low or negative interest rates. In a low or negative interest rate environment, debt securities may trade at, or be issued with, negative yields, which means the purchaser of the security may receive at maturity less than the total amount invested. To the extent the Fund holds a negatively-yielding debt security, the Fund would generate a negative return on that investment. Cash positions may also subject the Fund to increased counterparty risk to the Fund's bank. Debt market conditions are highly unpredictable and some parts of the market are subject to dislocations. In the past, the U.S. government and certain foreign central banks have taken steps to stabilize markets by, among other things, reducing interest rates.

If low or negative interest rates become more prevalent in the market and/or if low or negative interest rates persist for a sustained period of time, some investors may seek to reallocate assets to other income-producing assets. This may cause the price of such higher yielding instruments to rise, could further reduce the value of instruments with a negative yield, and may limit the Fund's ability to locate fixed income instruments containing the desired risk/return profile. Changing interest rates, including, rates that fall below zero, could have unpredictable effects on the markets and may expose fixed income markets to heightened volatility, increased redemptions, and potential illiquidity.

Because the Fund operates as a money market fund and seeks to maintain a stable $1.00 price per share, a low or negative interest rate environment could impact the Fund's ability to maintain a stable $1.00 share price. During a negative interest rate environment, the Fund may reduce the number of shares outstanding on a pro rata basis through reverse stock splits, negative dividends or other mechanisms to seek to maintain a stable $1.00 price per share, to the extent permissible by applicable law and its organizational documents. Alternatively, the Fund may discontinue using the amortized cost method of valuation to maintain a stable $1.00 price per share and establish a fluctuating NAV per share rounded to four decimal places by using available market quotations or equivalents.

Prepayment Debt securities, especially bonds that are subject to “calls” such as asset-backed or mortgage-backed securities,are subject to prepayment risk if their terms allow the payment of principal and other amounts due before their stated maturity. Amounts invested in a debt security that has been “called” or “prepaid” will be returned to an investor holding that security before expected by the investor. In such circumstances, the investor, such as a fund, may be required to re-invest the proceeds it receives from the called or prepaid security in a new security which, in periods of declining interest rates, will typically have a lower interest rate. Prepayment risk is especially prevalent in periods of declining interest rates and will result for other reasons, including unexpected developments in the markets for the underlying assets or mortgages. For example, a decline in mortgage interest rates typically initiates a period of mortgage refinancings. When homeowners refinance their mortgages, the investor in the underlying pool of mortgage-backed securities (such as a fund) receives its principal back sooner than expected, and must reinvest at lower, prevailing rates.

Securities subject to prepayment risk are often called during a declining interest rate environment and generally offer less potential for gains and greater price volatility than other income-bearing securities of comparable maturity.

Call risk is similar to prepayment risk and results from the ability of an issuer to call, or prepay, a debt security early. If interest rates decline enough, the debt security's issuer can save money by repaying its callable debt securities and issuing new debt securities at lower interest rates.

Liquidity Liquidity risk exists when particular investments are or become difficult to purchase or sell at the price at which the Fund has valued the security, whether because of current market conditions, the financial condition of the issuer, or the specific type of

12

investment. If the market for a particular security becomes illiquid (for example, due to changes in the issuer's financial condition), the Fund may be unable to sell such security at an advantageous time or price due to the difficulty in selling such securities. To the extent that the Fund and its affiliates hold a significant portion of an issuer's outstanding securities, the Fund may also be subject to greater liquidity risk than if the issuer's securities were more widely held. The Fund may also need to sell some of the Fund's more liquid securities when it otherwise would not do so in order to meet redemption requests, even if such sale of the liquid holdings would be disadvantageous from an investment standpoint. Reduced liquidity may also have an adverse impact on a security's market value and the sale of such securities often results in higher brokerage charges or dealer discounts and other selling expenses. Reduced liquidity in the secondary market for certain securities will also make it more difficult for the Fund to obtain market quotations based on actual trades for purposes of valuing the Fund's portfolio and thus pricing may be prone to error when market quotations are volatile, infrequent and/or subject to large spreads between bid and ask prices. In addition, prices received by the Fund for securities may be based on institutional “round lot” sizes, but the Fund may purchase, hold or sell smaller, “odd lot” sizes, which may be harder to sell. Odd lots may trade at lower prices than round lots, which may affect the Fund’s ability to accurately value its investments.

The market for certain equity or debt securities may become illiquid under adverse market or economic conditions independent of any specific adverse changes in the conditions of a particular issuer. Liquidity risk generally increases (meaning that securities become more illiquid) as the number, or relative need, of investors seeking to liquidate in a given market increases; for example, when an asset class or classes fall out of favor and investors sell their holdings in such classes, either directly or indirectly through investment funds, such as mutual funds.

Management The investment manager's judgments about markets, interest rates or the attractiveness, relative values or potential appreciation of particular investment strategies or sectors or securities purchased for the Fund's portfolio may prove to be incorrect, all of which could cause the Fund to perform less favorably and may result in a decline in the Fund's share price.

The investment manager selects investments for the Fund based on its own analysis and information as well as on external sources of information, such as information that the investment manager obtains from other sources including through conferences and discussions with third parties, and data that issuers of securities provide to the investment manager or file with government agencies. The investment manager may also use information concerning institutional positions and buying activity in a security.

The investment manager is not in a position to confirm the completeness, genuineness or accuracy of any of such information that is provided or filed by an issuer, and in some cases, complete and accurate information is not readily available. It is also possible that information on which the investment manager relies could be wrong or misleading. Additionally, legislative, regulatory, or tax developments may affect the investment techniques available to the investment manager in connection with managing the Fund and may also adversely affect the ability of the Fund to achieve its investment goal. Management risk is greater when less qualitative information is available to the investment manager about an investment.

Market The market value of securities owned by the Fund may go up or down, sometimes rapidly or unpredictably due to general market conditions which are not specifically related to a single corporate borrower or security issuer. These general market conditions include real or perceived adverse economic or regulatory conditions, changes in the general outlook for corporate earnings, changes in interest or currency exchange rates or adverse investor sentiment generally. Market values may also decline due to factors which affect a particular industry or sector, such as labor shortages or increased production costs and competitive conditions within an industry, or a particular segment, such as mortgage or government securities. During a general downturn in the securities markets, multiple asset classes may decline in value simultaneously. When markets perform well, there can be no assurance that the Fund's securities will participate in or otherwise benefit from the advance.

Trade policy The U.S. government has indicated its intent to alter its approach to international trade policy and, in some cases, to renegotiate or potentially terminate certain existing bilateral or multilateral trade agreements and treaties with foreign countries and has made proposals and taken actions related thereto. In addition, the U.S. government has recently imposed tariffs on certain foreign goods and has indicated a willingness to impose tariffs on imports of other products. Some foreign governments have instituted retaliatory tariffs on certain U.S. goods and have indicated a willingness to impose additional tariffs on U.S. products. Other countries have threatened retaliatory tariffs on certain U.S. products.

Global trade disruption, significant introductions of trade barriers, and bilateral trade frictions, together with any future downturns in the global economy resulting therefrom, could adversely affect the financial performance of the Fund and its investments. Trade policy may be an ongoing source of instability, potentially resulting in significant currency fluctuations and/or having other adverse effects on international markets, international trade agreements, and/or other existing cross-border cooperation arrangements (whether economic, tax, fiscal, legal, regulatory, or otherwise). To the extent trade disputes escalate globally, there could be

13

additional significant impacts on the sectors or industries in which the Fund invests and other adverse impacts on the Fund’s overall performance.

Policies and Procedures Regarding the Release of Portfolio Holdings

The Fund's overall policy with respect to the release of portfolio holdings is to release such information consistent with applicable legal requirements and the fiduciary duties owed to shareholders. Subject to the limited exceptions described below, the Fund will not make available to anyone non-public information with respect to its portfolio holdings, until such time as the information is made available to all shareholders or the general public.

For purposes of this policy, portfolio holdings information does not include aggregate, composite or descriptive information that, in the reasonable judgement of the Fund’s Chief Compliance Officer, does not present risks of dilution, arbitrage, market timing, insider trading or other inappropriate trading to the detriment of the Fund. Information excluded from the definition of portfolio holdings information generally includes, without limitation: (1) descriptions of allocations among asset classes, regions, countries or industries/sectors; (2) aggregated data such as average or median ratios, market capitalization, credit quality or duration; (3) performance attributions by industry, sector or country; or (4) aggregated risk statistics. Such information, if made available to anyone, will be made available to any person upon request, but, because such information is generally not material to investors, it may or may not be posted on the Fund's website. In addition, other information may also be deemed to not be portfolio holdings information if, in the reasonable belief of the Fund's Chief Compliance Officer (or his/her designee), the release of such information would not present risks of dilution, arbitrage, market timing, insider trading or other inappropriate trading for the Fund.

Information concerning the Fund's portfolio holdings as well as its dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity as of the last business day or any subsequent calendar day of the preceding month will be posted on its website no later than five business days after the end of the month and remain posted on the website for six months thereafter. In addition, the Fund files monthly with the SEC portfolio holdings and other information about the Fund and its portfolio as of the last business day of the preceding month (or any subsequent calendar day of such month) within five business days of the end of each month. This information is made public upon filing.

Consistent with current law, the Fund releases complete portfolio holdings information each fiscal quarter through regulatory filings with no more than a 60-day lag.

In addition, subject to the limited exceptions noted below, a complete list of the Fund's portfolio holdings is generally released no sooner than 15 calendar days after the end of each calendar month but may be released earlier provided the release is made available to the general public. Other portfolio holdings information, such as top 10 holdings, commentaries and other materials that may reference specific holdings information of the Fund as of the most recent month end are generally released five days after the end of each month but may be released earlier or later as deemed appropriate by the Fund’s portfolio manager. Released portfolio holdings information can be viewed at www.franklintempleton.com.

To the extent that this policy would permit the release of portfolio holdings information regarding a particular portfolio holding for the Fund that is the subject of ongoing purchase or sale orders/programs, or if the release of such portfolio holdings information would otherwise be sensitive or inappropriate due to liquidity or other market considerations, the portfolio manager for the Fund may request that the release of such information be withheld.

Exceptions to the portfolio holdings release policy (to the extent not otherwise permitted pursuant to an exclusion) will be made only when: (1) the Fund has a legitimate business purpose for releasing portfolio holdings information in advance of release to all shareholders or the general public; (2) the recipient is subject to a duty of confidentiality pursuant to a signed non-disclosure agreement; and (3) the release of such information would not otherwise violate the antifraud provisions of the federal securities laws or fiduciary duties owed to Fund shareholders. The determination of whether to grant an exception, which includes the determination of whether the Fund has a legitimate business purpose for releasing portfolio holdings information in advance of release to all shareholders shall be made by the Fund's Chief Compliance Officer or his/her designee, following a request submitted in writing.

The eligible third parties to whom portfolio holdings information may be released in advance of general release fall into the following categories: data consolidators (including rating agencies), fund rating/ranking services and other data providers; service providers to the Fund, investment manager; municipal securities brokers using the Investor Tools product, which brings together buyers and sellers of municipal securities in the normal operation of the municipal securities markets; certain entities, in response to any regulatory requirements, approved by the investment manager’s Chief Compliance Officer in limited circumstances; and transition managers hired by Fund shareholders. In addition, should the Fund process a shareholder’s redemption request in-kind, the Fund may, under certain circumstances, provide portfolio holdings information to such shareholder to the extent necessary to

14

allow the shareholder to prepare for receipt of such portfolio securities, which in some circumstances may include using such information to identify any securities the shareholder is not permitted to receive as redemption proceeds or to hedge or otherwise manage the shareholder’s risk exposure in connection with the redemption.

The specific entities to whom the Fund may provide portfolio holdings in advance of their release to the general public are:

• Bloomberg, Capital Access, CDA (Thomson Reuters), FactSet, Fidelity Advisors, S&P Global Ratings, Vestek, and Fidelity Trust Company, all of whom may receive portfolio holdings information 15 days after the quarter end.

• Service providers to the Fund that receive portfolio holdings information from time to time in advance of general release in the course of performing, or to enable them to perform, services for the Fund, including: Custodian Bank: JPMorgan Chase Bank; Sub-Administrator: JPMorgan Chase Bank; Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm: PricewaterhouseCoopers LLP; Outside Fund Legal Counsel: Stradley Ronon Stevens & Young, LLP; Independent Directors'/Trustees' Counsel: Vedder Price P.C; Proxy Voting Services: Glass, Lewis & Co., LLC and Institutional Shareholder Services, Inc.; Brokerage Analytical Services: Sanford Bernstein, Brown Brothers Harriman, Royal Bank of Canada Capital Markets, JP Morgan Securities Inc.; Financial Printers: Donnelley Financial Solutions, Inc. or GCOM Solutions, Inc.

Eligible third parties that do not otherwise have a duty of confidentiality or have not acknowledged such a duty are required to (a) execute a non-disclosure agreement that includes the following provisions or (b) otherwise acknowledge and represent adherence to substantially similar provisions. Non-disclosure agreements include the following provisions:

• The recipient agrees to keep confidential until such information either is released to the public or the release is otherwise approved by the Chief Compliance Officer.

• The recipient agrees not to trade on the non-public information received, except that a recipient of non-public holdings information received in connection with certain redemptions in-kind pursuant to contractual arrangements will not be prohibited from hedging or otherwise managing its risk exposure from the expected distribution of portfolio securities to be received in the redemptions in-kind.

• The recipient agrees to refresh its representation as to confidentiality and abstention from trading upon request from Franklin Templeton.

In no case does the Fund receive any compensation in connection with the arrangements to release portfolio holdings information to any of the above-described recipients of the information.

A fund other than a U.S. registered Franklin Templeton fund, such as an offshore fund or an unregistered private fund, with holdings that are not substantially similar to the holdings of a U.S. registered Franklin Templeton fund, is not subject to the restrictions imposed by the policy.

Several investment managers within Franklin Templeton (F-T Managers) serve as investment managers to offshore funds that are registered or otherwise authorized for sale with foreign regulatory authorities. Certain of these offshore funds may from time to time invest in securities substantially similar to those of the Fund. The release of portfolio holdings information for such offshore funds is excluded from the Fund's portfolio holdings release policy if such information is given to banks, broker-dealers, insurance companies, registered investment managers and other financial institutions (offshore investment managers) with discretionary authority to select offshore funds on behalf of their clients. Such information may only be disclosed for portfolio analytics, such as risk analysis/asset allocation, and the offshore investment manager will be required to execute a non-disclosure agreement, whereby such offshore investment manager: (1) agrees that it is subject to a duty of confidentiality; (2) agrees that it will not (a) purchase or sell any portfolio securities based on any information received; (b) trade against any U.S. registered Franklin Templeton fund, including the Fund; (c) knowingly engage in any trading practices that are adverse to any such fund or its shareholders; and (d) trade in shares of any such fund; and (3) agrees to limit the dissemination of such information so received within its organization other than to the extent necessary to fulfill its obligations with respect to portfolio analytics for its discretionary clients.

Certain F-T Managers serve as investment advisers to privately placed funds that are exempt from registration, including Canadian institutional pooled funds (“Canadian funds”). In certain circumstances, such unregistered private funds and Canadian funds may have portfolio holdings that are not, in the aggregate, substantially similar to the holdings of a U.S. registered fund, as determined by the Chief Compliance Officer or his/her designee. Under such circumstances the release of portfolio holdings information to a client or potential client or unitholder of the unregistered private fund or Canadian fund may be permissible. In circumstances where an unregistered private fund or Canadian fund invests in portfolio securities that, in the aggregate, are substantially similar

15

to the holdings of a U.S. registered fund, such private funds and Canadian funds are subject to the restrictions imposed by the policy, except that the release of holdings information to a current investor therein is permissible conditioned upon such investor’s execution of a non-disclosure agreement to mitigate the risk that portfolio holdings information may be used to trade inappropriately against a fund. Such non-disclosure agreement must provide that the investor: (1) agrees that it is subject to a duty of confidentiality; (2) agrees to not disseminate such information (except that the investor may be permitted to disseminate such information to an agent as necessary to allow the performance of portfolio analytics with respect to the investor’s investment in such fund); and (3) agrees not to trade on the non-public information received or trade in shares of any U.S. registered Franklin or Templeton fund that is managed in a style substantially similar to that of such fund, in the case of a Canadian fund.

U.S. registered open-end funds and offshore registered funds that invest substantially all of their assets in registered open-end funds and/or Exchange Traded Funds are excepted from the policy’s restrictions.

Certain F-T Managers provide model portfolios composed of portfolio holdings information to the sponsors of programs offering separately managed accounts, unified model accounts or similar accounts (“Program Sponsors”). If such model portfolios are substantially similar to those of a U.S. registered fund, such model portfolios may be provided to Program Sponsors so long as: (1) the recipient Program Sponsors has executed a non-disclosure agreement or other agreement containing or incorporating confidentiality provisions that restrict the use and dissemination of confidential portfolio holdings information received by the Program Sponsor as described in the following sentence, or other provisions that impose similar restrictions on such use and dissemination and, (2) the model portfolio has been deemed sufficiently liquid by the F-T Manager's liquidity committee or the applicable F-T Managers for the strategies of the applicable model portfolios, as determined in their reasonable judgment. Such agreement must provide that the Program Sponsor agrees that: (1) it is subject to a duty of confidentiality; (2) it will use confidential model portfolio information only to the extent necessary to perform its obligations under the agreement; and (3) it will not disclose confidential model portfolio information except to personnel or parties who have a need to know such confidential information in connection with, or in order to fulfill the purposes contemplated by, the agreement.

Some F-T Managers serve as sub-advisers to other mutual funds not within the Franklin Templeton fund complex ("other funds"), which may be managed in a style substantially similar to that of a U.S. registered Franklin or Templeton fund. Such other funds are not subject to the Fund's portfolio holdings release policy. The sponsors of such funds may disclose the portfolio holdings of such funds at different times than the Fund discloses its portfolio holdings.

The Fund's portfolio holdings release policy and all subsequent amendments have been reviewed and approved by the Fund's board, and any other material amendments shall also be reviewed and approved by the board. The investment manager's compliance staff conducts periodic reviews of compliance with the policy and provides at least annually a report to the board regarding the operation of the policy and any material changes recommended as a result of such review. The investment manager's compliance staff also will supply the board yearly with a list of exceptions granted to the policy, along with an explanation of the legitimate business purpose of the Fund that is served as a result of the exception.

Item 17. Management of the Fund

(a) Management Information

Independent Board Members

16

17

Interested Board Members and Officers

18

Note 1: Rupert H. Johnson, Jr. is the uncle of Gregory E. Johnson.

Note 2: Officer information is current as of the date of this SAI. It is possible that after this date, information about officers may change.

1. Information is for the calendar year ended December 31, 2025, unless otherwise noted. We base the number of portfolios on each separate series of the U.S. registered investment companies within the Franklin Templeton fund complex. These portfolios have a common investment manager or affiliated investment managers.

2. Gregory E. Johnson is considered to be an interested person of the Fund under the federal securities laws due to his position as an officer and director of Franklin Templeton, Inc., which is the parent company of the Fund's investment manager and distributor.

3. Rupert H. Johnson, Jr. is considered to be an interested person of the Fund under the federal securities laws due to his position as an officer and director and a major shareholder of Franklin Templeton, Inc., which is the parent company of the Fund's investment manager and distributor.

^* Ms. Bates was appointed to the Board of Trustees effective August 1, 2026.

^** Information is as of August 1, 2026. We base the number of portfolios on each separate series of the U.S. registered investment companies within the Franklin Templeton fund complex. These portfolios have a common investment manager or affiliated investment managers.

(b) Leadership Structure and Board of Trustees

The Trust has a board of trustees. Each trustee will serve until that person resigns or retires and/or a successor is elected and qualified. The board is responsible for the overall management of the Trust, including general supervision and review of the Fund's investment activities. The board, in turn, elects the officers of the Trust who are responsible for administering the Trust's day-to-day operations.

Board role in risk oversight The board, as a whole, considers risk management issues as part of its general oversight responsibilities throughout the year at regular board meetings, through regular reports that have been developed by management, in consultation with the board and its counsel. These reports address certain investment, valuation, liquidity and compliance matters. The board also may receive special written reports or presentations on a variety of risk issues, either upon the board’s request or upon the investment manager’s initiative. In addition, the Audit Committee of the board meets regularly with the investment manager's internal audit group to review reports on their examinations of functions and processes within Franklin Templeton that affect the Fund.

With respect to investment risk, the board receives regular written reports describing and analyzing the investment performance of the Fund. In addition, the portfolio managers of the Fund meet regularly with the board to discuss portfolio performance, including investment risk. To the extent that the Fund changes a particular investment strategy that could have a material impact on the Fund’s risk profile, the board generally is consulted with respect to such change. To the extent that the Fund invests in certain complex securities, including derivatives, the board receives periodic reports containing information about exposure of the Fund to such instruments. In addition, the investment manager's investment risk personnel meet regularly with the board to discuss a variety of issues, including the impact on the Fund of the investment in particular securities or instruments, such as derivatives and commodities.

19

With respect to valuation, the Fund’s investment manager provides periodic reports to the board that enable the board to oversee the Fund's investment manager in monitoring and assessing material risks associated with fair valuation determinations, including material conflicts of interest. In addition, the board reviews the investment manager's performance of an annual valuation risk assessment under which the investment manager seeks to identify and enumerate material valuation risks that are or may be impactful to the Fund including, but not limited to (1) the types of investments held (or intended to be held) by the Fund, giving consideration to those investments’ characteristics; (2) potential market or sector shocks or dislocations which may affect the ongoing valuation operations; and (3) the extent to which each fair value methodology uses unobservable inputs. The investment manager reports any material changes to the risk assessment, along with appropriate actions designed to manage such risks, to the board.

With respect to compliance risks, the board receives regular compliance reports prepared by the investment manager’s compliance group and meets regularly with the Fund’s Chief Compliance Officer (CCO) to discuss compliance issues, including compliance risks. In accordance with SEC rules, the independent board members meet regularly in executive session with the CCO, and the Fund’s CCO prepares and presents an annual written compliance report to the board. The Fund’s board adopts compliance policies and procedures for the Fund and approves such procedures for the Fund’s service providers. The compliance policies and procedures are specifically designed to detect and prevent violations of the federal securities laws.

The investment manager periodically provides an enterprise risk management presentation to the board to describe the way in which risk is managed on a complex-wide level. Such presentation covers such areas as investment risk, reputational risk, personnel risk, and business continuity risk.

Board structure A super-majority of board members consist of independent board members who are not deemed to be “interested persons” as provided under the 1940 Act. While the Chairperson of the Board is an interested person, the board is also served by a lead independent board member. The lead independent board member, together with independent counsel, reviews proposed agendas for board meetings and generally acts as a liaison with management with respect to questions and issues raised by the independent board members. The lead independent board member also presides at separate meetings of independent board members held in advance of each scheduled board meeting where various matters, including those being considered at such board meeting are discussed. It is believed such structure and activities assure that proper consideration is given at board meetings to matters deemed important to the Fund and its shareholders.

Trustee qualifications Information on the Fund’s officers and board members appears above including information on the business activities of board members during the past five years and beyond. In addition to personal qualities, such as integrity, the role of an effective Fund board member inherently requires the ability to comprehend, discuss and critically analyze materials and issues presented in exercising judgments and reaching informed conclusions relevant to his or her duties and fiduciary obligations. The board believes that the specific background of each board member evidences such ability and is appropriate to his or her serving on the Fund’s board. As indicated, Harris J. Ashton has served as a chief executive officer of a NYSE-listed public corporation; Ann Torre Bates has served as chief financial officer of a major corporation and as a board member of a number of public companies; Terrence J. Checki has served as a senior executive of a Federal Reserve Bank and has vast experience evaluating economic forces and their impact on markets, including emerging markets; Mary C. Choksi has an extensive background in asset management, including founding an investment management firm; Larry D. Thompson and Edith E. Holiday each have legal backgrounds, including high level legal positions with departments of the U.S. government; J. Michael Luttig has fifteen years of judicial experience as a Federal Appeals Court Judge and eleven years of experience as Executive Vice President and General Counsel of a major public company; Valerie M. Williams has over 35 years of audit and public accounting experience serving numerous global and multi-location companies in various industries; and Gregory E. Johnson and Rupert H. Johnson, Jr. are both high ranking executive officers of Franklin Templeton.

Board committees The board maintains two standing committees: the Audit Committee and the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee. The Audit Committee is generally responsible for recommending the selection of the Trust's independent registered public accounting firm (auditors), including evaluating their independence and meeting with such auditors to consider and review matters relating to the Trust's financial reports and internal controls. The Audit Committee is comprised of the following independent trustees of the Trust: Ann Torre Bates, Terrence J. Checki, Mary C. Choksi, Edith E. Holiday, J. Michael Luttig, Larry D. Thompson and Valerie M. Williams. The Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee is comprised of the following independent trustees of the Trust: Harris J. Ashton, Ann Torre Bates, Terrence J. Checki, Mary C. Choksi, Edith E. Holiday, J. Michael Luttig, Larry D. Thompson and Valerie M. Williams.

The Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee is responsible for selecting candidates to serve as board members and recommending such candidates (a) for selection and nomination as independent board members by the incumbent independent board members and the full board; and (b) for selection and nomination as interested board members by the full board.

20

When the board has or expects to have a vacancy, the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee receives and reviews information on individuals qualified to be recommended to the full board as nominees for election as board members, including any recommendations by “Qualifying Fund Shareholders” (as defined below). To date, the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee has been able to identify, and expects to continue to be able to identify, from its own resources an ample number of qualified candidates. The Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee, however, will review recommendations from Qualifying Fund Shareholders to fill vacancies on the board if these recommendations are submitted in writing and addressed to the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee at the Trust's offices at One Franklin Parkway, San Mateo, CA 94403-1906 and are presented with appropriate background material concerning the candidate that demonstrates his or her ability to serve as a board member, including as an independent board member, of the Trust. A Qualifying Fund Shareholder is a shareholder who (i) has continuously owned of record, or beneficially through a financial intermediary, shares of the Fund having a net asset value of not less than two hundred and fifty thousand dollars ($250,000) during the 24-month period prior to submitting the recommendation; and (ii) provides a written notice to the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee containing the following information: (a) the name and address of the Qualifying Fund Shareholder making the recommendation; (b) the number of shares of the Fund which are owned of record and beneficially by such Qualifying Fund Shareholder and the length of time that such shares have been so owned by the Qualifying Fund Shareholder; (c) a description of all arrangements and understandings between such Qualifying Fund Shareholder and any other person or persons (naming such person or persons) pursuant to which the recommendation is being made; (d) the name, age, date of birth, business address and residence address of the person or persons being recommended; (e) such other information regarding each person recommended by such Qualifying Fund Shareholder as would be required to be included in a proxy statement filed pursuant to the proxy rules of the SEC had the nominee been nominated by the board; (f) whether the shareholder making the recommendation believes the person recommended would or would not be an “interested person” of the Trust, as defined in the 1940 Act; and (g) the written consent of each person recommended to serve as a board member of the Trust if so nominated and elected/appointed.

The Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee may amend these procedures from time to time, including the procedures relating to the evaluation of nominees and the process for submitting recommendations to the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee.

During the fiscal year ended June 30, 2026, the Audit Committee met three times; the Nominating and Corporate Governance Committee met once.

Ownership of Shares of Funds in Franklin Templeton Board members historically have followed a policy of having substantial investments in one or more of the Franklin Templeton funds, as is consistent with their individual financial goals. In February 1998, this policy was formalized through the adoption of a requirement that each board member invest one-third of fees received for serving as a director or trustee of a Templeton fund (excluding committee fees) in shares of one or more Templeton funds and one-third of fees received for serving as a director or trustee of a Franklin fund (excluding committee fees) in shares of one or more Franklin funds until the value of such investments equals or exceeds five times the annual retainer and regular board meeting fees paid to such board member. Investments in the name of family members or entities controlled by a board member constitute fund holdings of such board member for purposes of this policy, and a three year phase-in period applies to such investment requirements for newly elected board members. In implementing such policy, a board member's fund holdings existing on February 27, 1998, are valued as of such date with subsequent investments valued at cost.

The following tables provide the dollar range of equity securities beneficially owned by the board members of the Trust on December 31, 2025.

Independent Board Members

21

Interested Board Members

(c) Compensation

The Trust pay fees to independent board members. Independent board members also may serve as directors or trustees of other funds in Franklin Templeton and may receive fees from these funds for their services. The fees payable to independent board members by the other funds in Franklin Templeton are subject to reductions resulting from fee caps limiting the amount of fees payable to board members who serve on other boards within Franklin Templeton. The following table provides the total fees paid to independent board members by Franklin Templeton.

Independent board members are reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with attending board meetings and such expenses are paid pro rata by each fund in the Franklin Templeton fund complex for which they serve as director or trustee. No officer or board member received any other compensation, including pension or retirement benefits, directly or indirectly from the Trust or other funds in the Franklin Templeton fund complex. Certain officers or board members who are shareholders of Franklin Templeton, Inc. may be deemed to receive indirect remuneration by virtue of their participation, if any, in the fees paid to its subsidiaries.

(d) Sales Loads

Not applicable.

(e) Codes of Ethics

The Fund and its investment manager have each adopted a code of ethics, as required by federal securities laws. Under the code of ethics, employees who are designated as access persons may engage in personal securities transactions, including transactions involving securities that are being considered for the Fund or that are currently held by the Fund, subject to certain general restrictions and procedures. The personal securities transactions of access persons of the Fund and its investment manager will be governed by the code of ethics. The code of ethics is on file with, and available from, the SEC.

(f) Proxy Voting Policies and Procedures

Not Applicable.

Item 18. Control Persons and Principal Holders of Securities

(a) Control Persons

As of October 1, 2026, the principal shareholders of the Fund, beneficial or of record, were:

22

At the levels of ownership indicated in the table above, Franklin Institutional U.S. Government Money Market Fund and Franklin U.S. Government Money Fund would be able to determine the outcome of most issues that are submitted to shareholders of the Fund to vote upon. Institutional Fiduciary Trust, of which Franklin Institutional U.S. Government Money Market Fund is a series, and Franklin U.S. Government Money Fund are organized as Delaware statutory trusts.

Each of Franklin Institutional U.S. Government Money Market Fund and Franklin U.S. Government Money Fund (collectively, the “Feeder Funds”) seek to achieve their investment goals by investing all of their assets in the Fund. Each Feeder Fund has informed the Fund that whenever it is requested to vote on matters pertaining to the policies of the Fund, the Feeder Fund will hold a meeting of shareholders and will cast its votes as instructed by the Feeder Fund’s shareholders. It is anticipated that other registered investment companies investing in the Fund will follow the same or a similar practice.

(b) Principal Holders

Except for the companies referred to above, to the best knowledge of the Fund, no other person holds beneficially or of record more than 5% of the outstanding shares of the Fund.

(c) Management Ownership

As of October 1, 2026, the officers and board members, as a group, owned of record and beneficially less than 1% of the outstanding shares of the Fund. The board members may own shares in other funds in Franklin Templeton.

Item 19. Investment Advisory and Other Services

(a) Investment Advisers

Investment manager and services provided

The Fund's investment manager is Franklin Advisers, Inc., One Franklin Parkway, San Mateo, CA 94403-1906. The investment manager is a wholly owned subsidiary of Franklin Templeton, Inc. (formerly known as Franklin Resources), a publicly owned company engaged in the financial services industry through its subsidiaries. Charles B. Johnson (former Chairman and Director of Franklin Templeton, Inc.) and Rupert H. Johnson, Jr. are the principal shareholders of Franklin Templeton, Inc.

The investment manager provides investment research and portfolio management services, and selects the securities for the Fund to buy, hold or sell. The investment manager also selects the brokers who execute the Fund's portfolio transactions. The investment manager provides periodic reports to the board, which reviews and supervises the investment manager's investment activities. To protect the Fund, the investment manager and its officers, directors and employees are covered by fidelity insurance.

23

The investment manager makes decisions for the Fund in accordance with its obligations as investment manager to the Fund. From time to time, certain affiliates may request that the investment manager focus the Fund’s investments on certain securities, strategies or markets or shift the Fund’s strategy slightly to enhance its attractiveness to specific investors, which may create a conflict of interest. The investment manager may, but is not required to, focus or shift the Fund’s investments in the manner requested provided that the investment manager believes that such investments are consistent with the Fund’s stated investment goals and strategies and are in the best interests of the Fund and its shareholders. In addition, the investment manager and its affiliates manage numerous other investment companies and accounts. The investment manager may give advice and take action with respect to any of the other funds it manages, or for its own account, that may differ from action taken by the investment manager on behalf of the Fund. Similarly, with respect to the Fund, the investment manager is not obligated to recommend, buy or sell, or to refrain from recommending, buying or selling any security that the investment manager and access persons, as defined by applicable federal securities laws, may buy or sell for its or their own account or for the accounts of any other fund. The investment manager is not obligated to refrain from investing in securities held by the Fund or other funds it manages.

Management fees

The Fund pays the investment manager a fee equal to an annual rate of 0.15% of the value of the Fund's average daily net assets.

The fee is calculated at the close of business each day according to the terms of the management agreement. For the last three fiscal years ended June 30, the Fund paid the following management fees:

(b) Principal Underwriter

Not applicable.

(c) Services Provided by Each Investment Adviser and Fund Expenses Paid by Third Parties

Not applicable.

(d) Service Agreements

Not applicable.

(e) Other Investment Advice

Not applicable.

(f) Dealer Reallowances

Not applicable.

(g) Rule 12b-1 Plans

Not applicable.

(h) Other Service Providers

Shareholder Servicing and Transfer Agent Franklin Templeton Investor Services, LLC (Investor Services) is the Fund's shareholder servicing agent and acts as the Fund's transfer agent and dividend-paying agent. Investor Services is located at 100 Fountain Parkway, St. Petersburg, FL 33716. Please send all correspondence to Investor Services at P.O. Box 33030, St. Petersburg, FL 33733.

24

Sub-administrator JPMorgan Chase Bank, N.A. (JPMorgan) has an agreement with FT Services to provide certain sub-administrative services for the Fund. The administrative services provided by JPMorgan include, but are not limited to, certain fund accounting, financial reporting, tax, corporate governance and compliance and legal administration services.

Custodian JPMorgan Chase Bank, at its principal office at 270 Park Avenue, New York, NY 10017-2070, and at the offices of its branches and agencies throughout the world, acts as custodian of the Fund's securities and other assets.

Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm PricewaterhouseCoopers LLP, 405 Howard Street, Suite 600, San Francisco, CA 94105, is the Fund's independent registered public accounting firm. The independent registered public accounting firm audits the financial statements included in the Fund's Form N-CSR filed with the SEC.

Item 19(i). Securities Lending

Not applicable.

Item 20. Portfolio Managers

Not Applicable.

Item 21. Brokerage Allocation and Other Practices

Since most purchases by the Fund are principal transactions at net prices, the Fund incurs little or no brokerage costs. The Fund deals directly with the selling or buying principal or market maker without incurring charges for the services of a broker on its behalf, unless it is determined that a better price or execution may be obtained by using the services of a broker. Purchases of portfolio securities from underwriters will include a commission or concession paid to the underwriter, and purchases from dealers will include a spread between the bid and ask price. The Fund seeks to obtain prompt execution of orders at the most favorable net price. Transactions may be directed to dealers in return for research and statistical information, as well as for special services provided by the dealers in the execution of orders.

It is not possible to place an accurate dollar value on the special execution or on the research services the investment manager receives from dealers effecting transactions in portfolio securities. The allocation of transactions to obtain additional research services allows the investment manager to supplement its own research and analysis activities and to receive the views and information of individuals and research staffs from many securities firms. The receipt of these products and services does not reduce the investment manager's research activities in providing investment advice to the Fund.

As long as it is lawful and appropriate to do so, the investment manager and its affiliates may use this research and data in their investment advisory capacities with other clients.

If purchases or sales of securities of the Fund and one or more other investment companies or clients supervised by the investment manager are considered at or about the same time, transactions in these securities will be allocated among the several investment companies and clients in a manner deemed equitable to all by the investment manager, taking into account the respective sizes of the accounts and the amount of securities to be purchased or sold. In some cases this procedure could have a detrimental effect on the price or volume of the security so far as the Fund is concerned. In other cases it is possible that the ability to participate in volume transactions may improve execution and reduce transaction costs to the Fund.

For the last three fiscal years ended June 30, the Fund did not pay any brokerage commissions.

As of June 30, 2026, the Fund did not own securities of its regular broker-dealers.

Item 22. Capital Stock and Other Securities

The Trust has noncumulative voting rights. For board member elections, this gives holders of more than 50% of the shares voting the ability to elect all of the members of the board. If this happens, holders of the remaining shares voting will not be able to elect anyone to the board.

The Trust does not intend to hold annual shareholder meetings. The Trust or a series of the Trust may hold special meetings, however, for matters requiring shareholder approval.

25

Item 23. Purchase, Redemption and Pricing of Shares

The valuation of the Fund's portfolio securities is based on the amortized cost of the securities, which does not take into account unrealized capital gains or losses. This method involves valuing an instrument at its cost and thereafter assuming a constant amortization to maturity of any discount or premium, regardless of the impact of fluctuating interest rates on the market value of the instrument. While this method provides certainty in calculation, it may result in periods during which value, as determined by amortized cost, is higher or lower than the price the Fund would receive if it sold the instrument. During periods of declining interest rates, the daily yield on shares of the Fund computed as described above may tend to be higher than a like computation made by the Fund with identical investments but using a method of valuation based upon market prices and estimates of market prices for all of its portfolio instruments. Thus, if the use of amortized cost by the Fund resulted in a lower aggregate portfolio value on a particular day, a prospective investor in the Fund would be able to obtain a somewhat higher yield than would result from an investment in a fund using only market values, and existing investors in the Fund would receive less investment income. The opposite would be true in a period of rising interest rates. The Fund's use of amortized cost, which helps the Fund maintain a $1.00 share price, is permitted by a rule adopted by the SEC.

The board has established procedures designed to stabilize, to the extent reasonably possible, the Fund's price per share at $1.00, as computed for the purpose of sales and redemptions. These procedures include a daily calculation of the extent of deviation, if any, of the Fund's net asset value calculated by using available market quotations from the Fund’s amortized cost per share. The extent of any deviation will be examined by the board. If a deviation exceeds 1/2 of 1%, the board will promptly consider what action, if any, will be initiated. If the board determines that a deviation exists that may result in material dilution or other unfair results to investors or existing shareholders, it will take corrective action that it regards as necessary and appropriate, which may include selling portfolio instruments before maturity to realize capital gains or losses or to shorten average portfolio maturity, withholding dividends, redeeming shares in kind, or establishing a net asset value per share by using available market quotations.

Because the Fund operates as a money market fund and seeks to maintain a stable $1.00 price per share, a low or negative interest rate environment could impact the Fund's ability to maintain a stable $1.00 share price. During a negative interest rate environment which causes the Fund to have a negative gross yield, the Fund may reduce the number of shares outstanding on a pro rata basis through share cancellation or other mechanisms to seek to maintain a stable $1.00 price per share, subject to Board approval and to the extent permissible by applicable law and its organizational documents. Alternatively, the Fund may discontinue using the amortized cost method of valuation to maintain a stable $1.00 price per share and establish a fluctuating NAV per share rounded to four decimal places by using available market quotations or equivalents. A fund that implements share cancellation would continue to maintain a stable $1.00 share price by use of the amortized cost method of valuation and/or penny rounding method but the value of an investor’s investment would decline if the fund reduced the number of shares held by the investor. If a fund were to float its NAV, it would no longer maintain a stable $1.00 share price and instead have a share price that fluctuates. An investor in a fund that floats its NAV would lose money if the investor sells their shares when they are worth less than what the investor originally paid for them.

After a cancellation of shares, the basis of cancelled shares would be added to the basis of shareholders’ remaining fund shares, and any shareholders disposing of shares at that time may recognize a capital loss unless the “wash sale” rules apply. Dividends, including dividends reinvested in additional shares of the fund will nonetheless be fully taxable, even if the number of shares in shareholders’ accounts has been reduced through share cancellation. Due to a lack of guidance regarding share cancellation, however, the tax consequences of such cancellation of shares to a fund and its shareholders is unclear and may differ from that just described.

Redemptions in kind To the extent that a shareholder submits redemption requests during any 90-day period that combined are limited to the lesser of $250,000 or 1% of the value of the Fund's net assets (as calculated at the beginning of the 90-day period), the Fund has committed to pay such redemptions in cash (by check, wire or otherwise). This commitment is irrevocable without the prior approval of the SEC. In the case of redemption requests in excess of these amounts, the Fund reserves the right to make payments in whole or in part in securities or other assets of the Fund, in case of an emergency, or if the payment of such a redemption in cash would be detrimental to the existing shareholders of the Fund. In these circumstances, the securities distributed would be valued at the price used to compute the Fund's net assets and you may incur brokerage fees in converting the securities to cash. The Fund does not intend to redeem illiquid securities in kind. If this happens, however, you may not be able to recover your investment in a timely manner. In addition, in certain circumstances, the Fund may not be able to redeem securities in-kind or the investment manager may not have the ability to determine whether a particular redemption can be paid in-kind before the redemption request is paid.

26

Share certificates  We will credit your shares to your Fund account. We do not issue share certificates. This eliminates the costly problem of replacing lost, stolen or destroyed certificates.

Item 24. Taxation of the Fund

Distributions of net investment income. The Fund receives income generally in the form of interest on its investments. The Fund may also earn taxable income from temporary investments, the discount on stripped obligations or their coupons, income from securities loans or other taxable transactions, ordinary income from the sale of market discount bonds and net short-term capital gains from the sale or other disposition of its portfolio securities. This income, less expenses incurred in the operation of the Fund, constitutes the Fund's net investment income from which dividends may be paid to the shareholders. This income will be taxable as ordinary income. Because the Fund is a money fund, it does not anticipate realizing any long-term capital gains.

Information on the tax character of dividends The Fund will inform you of the amount of your dividends at the time they are paid, and will advise you of their tax status for federal income tax purposes shortly after the close of each calendar year. Dividends declared in October, November or December but paid in January are taxable to you as if paid in December.

Election to be taxed as a regulated investment company The Fund has elected to be treated as a regulated investment company under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). It has qualified as a regulated investment company for its most recent fiscal year, and intends to continue to qualify during the current fiscal year. As a regulated investment company, the Fund generally pays no federal income tax on the income and gains it distributes to you. The board reserves the right not to maintain the qualification of the Fund as a regulated investment company if it determines this course of action to be beneficial to shareholders. In that case, the Fund would be subject to federal, and possibly state, corporate taxes on its taxable income and gains, and distributions would be taxed as ordinary income dividends to the extent of the Fund's earnings and profits.

Excise tax distribution requirements To avoid federal excise taxes, the Fund intends to declare and pay out its income currently, but can give no assurances that its distributions will be sufficient to eliminate all federal excise taxes.

Sales of Fund shares Sales and exchanges of Fund shares are taxable transactions for federal and state income tax purposes. However, to the extent that the Fund is able to maintain a stable $1.00 share price, no gain or loss will result from such sales or exchanges.

Qualified dividends and the corporate dividends-received deduction Because the income of the Fund is primarily derived from investments earning interest rather than dividend income, generally none of its income dividends will be qualifying dividend income or dividends eligible for the corporate dividends-received deduction.

Investment in complex securities The Fund may invest in securities issued or purchased at a discount that may require it to accrue and distribute income not yet received. In order to generate sufficient cash to make these distributions, the Fund may be required to sell securities in its portfolio that it otherwise might have continued to hold. These rules could affect the amount, timing and tax character of income distributed to the shareholders.

Item 25. Underwriters

Not applicable.

Item 26. Calculation of Performance Data

Not applicable.

Item 27. Financial Statements

The audited financial statements and Report of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm in the Fund's Form N-CSR, for the fiscal year ended June 30, 2026, are incorporated herein by reference.

The ratings of Moody’s Ratings, S&P Global Ratings and Fitch Ratings represent their opinions as to the quality of various debt obligations. It should be emphasized, however, that ratings are not absolute standards of quality. Consequently, debt obligations with the same maturity, coupon and rating may have different yields while debt obligations of the same maturity and coupon with different ratings may have the same yield. As described by the rating agencies, ratings are generally given to securities at the time of issuances. While the rating agencies may from time to time revise such ratings, they undertake no obligation to do so.

27

Moody’s Ratings Global Rating Scales

Credit ratings are assigned on Moody’s global long-term and short-term rating scales and are forward-looking opinions of the relative credit risks of financial obligations issued by non-financial corporates, financial institutions, structured finance vehicles, project finance vehicles, and public sector entities. Moody’s defines credit risk as the risk that an entity may not meet its contractual financial obligations as they come due and any estimated financial loss in the event of default or impairment. The contractual financial obligations¹ addressed by Moody’s ratings are those that call for, without regard to enforceability, the payment of an ascertainable amount, which may vary based upon standard sources of variation (e.g., floating interest rates), by an ascertainable date. Moody’s rating addresses the issuer’s ability to obtain cash sufficient to service the obligation, and its willingness to pay.² Moody’s ratings do not address non-standard sources of variation in the amount of the principal obligation (e.g., equity indexed), absent an express statement to the contrary in a press release accompanying an initial rating.³ Long-term ratings are assigned to issuers or obligations with an original maturity of eleven months or more and reflect both on the likelihood of a default or impairment on contractual financial obligations and the expected financial loss suffered in the event of default or impairment. Short-term ratings are assigned to obligations with an original maturity of thirteen months or less and reflect both on the likelihood of a default or impairment on contractual financial obligations and the expected financial loss suffered in the event of default or impairment.^{4, 5, 6} Moody’s issues ratings at the issuer level and instrument level on both the long- term scale and the short-term scale. Typically, ratings are made publicly available although private and unpublished ratings may also be assigned.⁷

Moody’s differentiates structured finance ratings from fundamental ratings (i.e., ratings on nonfinancial corporate, financial institution, and public sector entities) on the global long-term scale by adding (sf) to all structured finance ratings.⁸ The addition of (sf) to structured finance ratings should eliminate any presumption that such ratings and fundamental ratings at the same letter grade level will behave the same.

1. In the case of impairments, there can be a financial loss even when contractual obligations are met.

2. In some cases, the relevant credit risk relates to a third party, in addition to, or instead of the issuer. Examples include credit-linked notes and guaranteed obligations.

3. Because the number of possible features or structures is limited only by the creativity of issuers, Moody’s cannot comprehensively catalogue all the types of non-standard variation affecting financial obligations, but examples include equity indexed principal values and cash flows, prepayment penalties, and an obligation to pay an amount that is not ascertainable at the inception of the transaction.

4. For certain preferred stock and hybrid securities in which payment default events are either not defined or do not match investors’ expectations for timely payment, long-term and short-term ratings reflect the likelihood of impairment and financial loss in the event of impairment.

5. Debts held on the balance sheets of official sector institutions – which include supranational institutions, central banks and certain government-owned or controlled banks – may not always be treated the same as debts held by private investors and lenders. When it is known that an obligation is held by official sector institutions as well as other investors, a rating (short-term or long-term) assigned to that obligation reflects only the credit risks faced by non-official sector investors.

6. Where grace periods are disproportionately long relative to the stated maturity, Moody’s may choose not to rate the Instrument. This is particularly relevant in the commercial paper market where maturities may be 30 days or less with strong investor expectation of prompt payment.

7. For information on how to obtain a Moody’s credit rating, including private and unpublished credit ratings, please see Moody’s Ratings Products. Please note that Moody’s always reserves the right to choose not to assign or maintain a credit rating for its own business reasons.

8. Like other global scale ratings, (sf) ratings reflect both the likelihood of a default and the expected loss suffered in the event of default. Ratings are assigned based on a rating committee’s assessment of a security’s expected loss rate (default probability multiplied by expected loss severity), and may be subject to the constraint that the final expected loss rating assigned would not be more than a certain number of notches, typically three to five notches, above the rating that would be assigned based on an assessment of default probability alone. The magnitude of this constraint may vary with the level of the rating, the seasoning of the transaction, and the uncertainty around the assessments of expected loss and probability of default.

The (sf) indicator for structured finance security ratings indicates that otherwise similarly rated structured finance and fundamental securities may have different risk characteristics. Through its current methodologies, however, Moody’s aspires to achieve broad expected equivalence in structured finance and fundamental rating performance when measured over a long period of time.

Description of Moody’s Ratings’ Global Long-Term Ratings:

Aaa—Obligations rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, subject to the lowest level of credit risk.

Aa—Obligations rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit risk.

A—Obligations rated A are judged to be upper-medium grade and are subject to low credit risk.

Baa—Obligations rated Baa are judged to be medium-grade and subject to moderate credit risk and as such may possess certain speculative characteristics.

Ba—Obligations rated Ba are judged to be speculative and are subject to substantial credit risk.

B—Obligations rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk.

28

Caa—Obligations rated Caa are judged to be speculative of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk.

Ca—Obligations rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of recovery of principal and interest.

C—Obligations rated C are the lowest rated and are typically in default, with little prospect for recovery of principal or interest.

Note: Moody’s appends numerical modifiers 1, 2, and 3 to each generic rating classification from Aa through Caa. The modifier 1 indicates that the obligation ranks in the higher end of its generic rating category; the modifier 2 indicates a mid-range ranking; and the modifier 3 indicates a ranking in the lower end of that generic rating category. Additionally, a “(hyb)” indicator is appended to all ratings of hybrid securities issued by banks, insurers, finance companies, and securities firms.^*

* By their terms, hybrid securities allow for the omission of scheduled dividends, interest, or principal payments, which can potentially result in impairment if such an omission occurs. Hybrid securities may also be subject to contractually allowable write-downs of principal that could result in impairment. Together with the hybrid indicator, the long-term obligation rating assigned to a hybrid security is an expression of the relative credit risk associated with that security.

Description of Moody’s Ratings’ Global Short-Term Ratings:

P-1—Ratings of Prime-1 reflect a superior ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

P-2—Ratings of Prime-2 reflect a strong ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

P-3—Ratings of Prime-3 reflect an acceptable ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

NP—Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime rating categories.

Description of Moody’s Ratings’ US Municipal Ratings:

US Municipal Short-Term Debt and Demand Obligation Ratings:

Moody’s uses the global short-term Prime rating scale for commercial paper issued by US municipalities and nonprofits. These commercial paper programs may be backed by external letters of credit or liquidity facilities, or by an issuer’s self-liquidity.

For other short-term municipal obligations, Moody’s uses one of two other short-term rating scales, the Municipal Investment Grade (MIG) and Variable Municipal Investment Grade (VMIG) scales discussed below.

MIG Ratings:

Moody’s uses the MIG scale for US municipal cash flow notes, bond anticipation notes and certain other short-term obligations, which typically mature in three years or less.

MIG 1—This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows, highly reliable liquidity support, or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing.

MIG 2—This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the preceding group.

MIG 3—This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection may be narrow, and market access for refinancing is likely to be less well-established.

SG—This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack sufficient margins of protection.

VMIG Ratings:

For variable rate demand obligations (VRDOs), Moody’s assigns both a long-term rating and a short-term payment obligation rating. The long-term rating addresses the issuer’s ability to meet scheduled principal and interest payments. The short-term payment obligation rating addresses the ability of the issuer or the liquidity provider to meet any purchase price payment obligation resulting from optional tenders (“on demand”) and/or mandatory tenders of the VRDO. The short-term payment obligation rating uses the VMIG scale. Transitions of VMIG ratings with conditional liquidity support differ from transitions of Prime ratings reflecting the risk that external liquidity support will terminate if the issuer’s long-term rating drops below investment grade.

29

For VRDOs, Moody’s typically assigns a VMIG rating if the frequency of the payment obligation is less than every three years. If the frequency of the payment obligation is less than three years, but the obligation is payable only with remarketing proceeds, the VMIG short-term rating is not assigned and it is denoted as “NR”. Industrial development bonds in the US where the obligor is a corporate may carry a VMIG rating that reflects Moody’s view of the relative likelihood of default and loss. In these cases, liquidity assessment is based on the liquidity of the corporate obligor.

VMIG 1—This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by the superior short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections.

VMIG 2—This designation denotes strong credit quality. Good protection is afforded by the strong short- term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections.

VMIG 3—This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Adequate protection is afforded by the satisfactory short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections.

SG—This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Demand features rated in this category may be supported by a liquidity provider that does not have a sufficiently strong short-term rating or may lack structural or legal protections.

Description of Moody’s Ratings’ National Scale Long-Term Ratings:

Moody’s long-term National Scale Ratings (NSRs) are opinions of the relative creditworthiness of issuers and financial obligations within a particular country. NSRs are not designed to be compared among countries; rather, they address relative credit risk within a given country. Moody’s assigns national scale ratings in certain local capital markets in which investors have found the global rating scale provides inadequate differentiation among credits or is inconsistent with a rating scale already in common use in the country.

In each specific country, the last two characters of the rating indicate the country in which the issuer is located or the financial obligation was issued (e.g., Aaa.ke for Kenya).

Long-Term NSR Scale

Aaa.n Issuers or issues rated Aaa.n demonstrate the strongest creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

Aa.n  Issuers or issues rated Aa.n demonstrate very strong creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

A.n  Issuers or issues rated A.n demonstrate above-average creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

Baa.n  Issuers or issues rated Baa.n demonstrate average creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

Ba.n  Issuers or issues rated Ba.n demonstrate below-average creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

B.n  Issuers or issues rated B.n demonstrate weak creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

Caa.n  Issuers or issues rated Caa.n demonstrate very weak creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

Ca.n  Issuers or issues rated Ca.n demonstrate extremely weak creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

C.n  Issuers or issues rated C.n demonstrate the weakest creditworthiness relative to other domestic issuers and issuances.

Note: Moody’s appends numerical modifiers 1, 2, and 3 to each generic rating classification from Aa through Caa. The modifier 1 indicates that the obligation ranks in the higher end of its generic rating category; the modifier 2 indicates a mid-range ranking; and the modifier 3 indicates a ranking in the lower end of that generic rating category.

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Long-Term Issue Credit Ratings:

Issue credit ratings are based, in varying degrees, on S&P Global Ratings’ analysis of the following considerations:

• The likelihood of payment—the capacity and willingness of the obligor to meet its financial commitments on an obligation in accordance with the terms of the obligation;

• The nature and provisions of the financial obligation, and the promise S&P Global Ratings imputes; and

• The protection afforded by, and relative position of, the financial obligation in the event of a bankruptcy, reorganization, or other arrangement under the laws of bankruptcy and other laws affecting creditors’ rights.

30

An issue rating is an assessment of default risk but may incorporate an assessment of relative seniority or ultimate recovery in the event of default. Junior obligations are typically rated lower than senior obligations, to reflect lower priority in bankruptcy, as noted above. (Such differentiation may apply when an entity has both senior and subordinated obligations, secured and unsecured obligations, or operating company and holding company obligations.)

AAA—An obligation rated “AAA” has the highest rating assigned by S&P Global Ratings. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is extremely strong.

AA—An obligation rated “AA” differs from the highest-rated obligations only to a small degree. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is very strong.

A—An obligation rated “A” is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is still strong.

BBB—An obligation rated “BBB” exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.

BB, B, CCC, CC, and C—Obligations rated “BB”, “B”, “CCC”, “CC”, and “C” are regarded as having significant speculative characteristics. “BB” indicates the least degree of speculation and “C” the highest. While such obligations will likely have some quality and protective characteristics, these may be outweighed by large uncertainties or major exposure to adverse conditions.

BB—An obligation rated “BB” is less vulnerable to nonpayment than other speculative issues. However, it faces major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.

B—An obligation rated “B” is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated “BB”, but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. Adverse business, financial, or economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.

CCC—An obligation rated “CCC” is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. In the event of adverse business, financial, or economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.

CC—An obligation rated “CC” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment.

The “CC” rating is used when a default has not yet occurred but S&P Global Ratings expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to default.

C—An obligation rated “C” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation is expected to have lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared with obligations that are rated higher.

D—An obligation rated “D” is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments, the “D” rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P Global Ratings believes that such payments will be made within the next five business days in the absence of a stated grace period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or the next 30 calendar days. The “D” rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to “D” if it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring.

Note: The ratings from “AA” to “CCC” may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (-) sign to show relative standing within the rating categories.

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Short-Term Issue Credit Ratings:

A-1—A short-term obligation rated “A-1” is rated in the highest category by S&P Global Ratings. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is strong. Within this category, certain obligations are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on these obligations is extremely strong.

31

A-2—A short-term obligation rated “A-2” is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is satisfactory.

A-3—A short-term obligation rated “A-3” exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken an obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.

B—A short-term obligation rated “B” is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing uncertainties that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.

C—A short-term obligation rated “C” is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.

D—A short-term obligation rated “D” is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments, the “D” rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P Global Ratings believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period.

However, any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. The “D” rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to “D” if it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring.

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Municipal Short-Term Note Ratings:

An S&P Global Ratings U.S. municipal note rating reflects S&P Global Ratings’ opinion about the liquidity factors and market access risks unique to the notes. Notes due in three years or less will likely receive a note rating. Notes with an original maturity of more than three years will most likely receive a long-term debt rating. In determining which type of rating, if any, to assign, S&P Global Ratings’ analysis will review the following considerations:

• Amortization schedule—the larger the final maturity relative to other maturities, the more likely it will be treated as a note; and

• Source of payment—the more dependent the issue is on the market for its refinancing, the more likely it will be treated as a note.

SP-1—Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay debt service is given a plus (+) designation.

SP-2—Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse financial and economic changes over the term of the notes.

SP-3—Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest.

D—“D” is assigned upon failure to pay the note when due, completion of a distressed debt restructuring, or the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions.

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Long-Term Issuer Credit Ratings

AAA An obligor rated “AAA” has extremely strong capacity to meet its financial commitments. “AAA” is the highest issuer credit rating assigned by S&P Global Ratings.

AA An obligor rated “AA” has very strong capacity to meet its financial commitments. It differs from the highest-rated obligors only to a small degree.

A An obligor rated “A” has strong capacity to meet its financial commitments but is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligors in higher-rated categories.

BBB An obligor rated “BBB” has adequate capacity to meet its financial commitments. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments.

32

BB, B, CCC, and CC Obligors rated “BB”, “B”, “CCC”, and “CC” are regarded as having significant speculative characteristics. “BB” indicates the least degree of speculation and “CC” the highest. While such obligors will likely have some quality and protective characteristics, these may be outweighed by large uncertainties or major exposure to adverse conditions.

BB An obligor rated “BB” is less vulnerable in the near term than other lower-rated obligors. However, it faces major ongoing uncertainties and exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.

B An obligor rated “B” is more vulnerable than the obligors rated “BB”, but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments. Adverse business, financial, or economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitments.

CCC An obligor rated “CCC” is currently vulnerable and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions to meet its financial commitments.

CC An obligor rated “CC” is currently highly vulnerable. The “CC” rating is used when a default has not yet occurred but S&P Global Ratings expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to default.

SD and D An obligor is rated “SD” (selective default) or “D” if S&P Global Ratings considers there to be a default on one or more of its financial obligations, whether long- or short-term, including rated and unrated obligations but excluding hybrid instruments classified as regulatory capital or in nonpayment according to terms. A “D” rating is assigned when S&P Global Ratings believes that the default will be a general default and that the obligor will fail to pay all or substantially all of its obligations as they come due. An “SD” rating is assigned when S&P Global Ratings believes that the obligor has selectively defaulted on a specific issue or class of obligations but it will continue to meet its payment obligations on other issues or classes of obligations in a timely manner. A rating on an obligor is lowered to “D” or “SD” if it is conducting a distressed debt restructuring.

Ratings from “AA” to “CCC” may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (-) sign to show relative standing within the rating categories.

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Short-Term Issuer Credit Ratings

A-1 An obligor rated “A-1” has strong capacity to meet its financial commitments. It is rated in the highest category by S&P Global Ratings. Within this category, certain obligors are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments is extremely strong.

A-2 An obligor rated “A-2” has satisfactory capacity to meet its financial commitments. However, it is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligors in the highest rating category.

A-3 An obligor rated “A-3” has adequate capacity to meet its financial obligations. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments.

B An obligor rated “B” is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing uncertainties that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.

C An obligor rated “C” is currently vulnerable to nonpayment that would result in an “SD” or “D” issuer rating and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions to meet its financial commitments.

SD and D An obligor is rated “SD” (selective default) or “D” if S&P Global Ratings considers there to be a default on one or more of its financial obligations, whether long- or short-term, including rated and unrated obligations but excluding hybrid instruments classified as regulatory capital or in nonpayment according to terms. A “D” rating is assigned when S&P Global Ratings believes that the default will be a general default and that the obligor will fail to pay all or substantially all of its obligations as they come due. An “SD” rating is assigned when S&P Global Ratings believes that the obligor has selectively defaulted on a specific issue or class of obligations but it will continue to meet its payment obligations on other issues or classes of obligations in a timely manner. A rating on an obligor is lowered to “D” or “SD” if it is conducting a distressed debt restructuring.

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Dual Ratings:

Dual ratings may be assigned to debt issues that have a put option or demand feature. The first component of the rating addresses the likelihood of repayment of principal and interest as due, and the second component of the rating addresses only the demand

33

feature. The first component of the rating can relate to either a short-term or long-term transaction and accordingly use either short-term or long-term rating symbols. The second component of the rating relates to the put option and is assigned a short-term rating symbol (for example, “AAA/A-1+” or “A-1+/A-1”). With U.S. municipal short-term demand debt, the U.S. municipal short-term note rating symbols are used for the first component of the rating (for example, “SP-1+/A-1+”).

Description of S&P Global Ratings’ Active Qualifiers:

S&P Global Ratings uses the following qualifiers that limit the scope of a rating. The structure of the transaction can require the use of a qualifier such as a “p” qualifier, which indicates the rating addresses the principal portion of the obligation only. A qualifier appears as a suffix and is part of the rating.

Federal deposit insurance limit: “L” qualifier. Ratings qualified with “L” apply only to amounts invested up to federal deposit insurance limits.

Principal: “p” qualifier. This suffix is used for issues in which the credit factors, the terms, or both that determine the likelihood of receipt of payment of principal are different from the credit factors, terms, or both that determine the likelihood of receipt of interest on the obligation. The “p” suffix indicates that the rating addresses the principal portion of the obligation only and that the interest is not rated.

Preliminary ratings: “prelim” qualifier. Preliminary ratings, with the “prelim” suffix, may be assigned to obligors or obligations, including financial programs, in the circumstances described below. Assignment of a final rating is conditional on the receipt by S&P Global Ratings of appropriate documentation. S&P Global Ratings reserves the right not to issue a final rating. Moreover, if a final rating is issued, it may differ from the preliminary rating.

• Preliminary ratings may be assigned to obligations, most commonly structured and project finance issues, pending receipt of final documentation and legal opinions.

• Preliminary ratings may be assigned to obligations that will likely be issued upon the obligor’s emergence from bankruptcy or similar reorganization, based on late-stage reorganization plans, documentation, and discussions with the obligor. Preliminary ratings may also be assigned to the obligors. These ratings consider the anticipated general credit quality of the reorganized or post-bankruptcy issuer as well as attributes of the anticipated obligation(s).

• Preliminary ratings may be assigned to entities that are being formed or that are in the process of being independently established when, in S&P Global Ratings’ opinion, documentation is close to final. Preliminary ratings may also be assigned to the obligations of these entities.

• Preliminary ratings may be assigned when a previously unrated entity is undergoing a well-formulated restructuring, recapitalization, significant financing, or other transformative event, generally at the point that investor or lender commitments are invited. The preliminary rating may be assigned to the entity and to its proposed obligation(s). These preliminary ratings consider the anticipated general credit quality of the obligor, as well as attributes of the anticipated obligation(s), assuming successful completion of the transformative event. Should the transformative event not occur, S&P Global Ratings would likely withdraw these preliminary ratings.

• A preliminary recovery rating may be assigned to an obligation that has a preliminary issue credit rating.

Termination structures: “t” qualifier. This symbol indicates termination structures that are designed to honor their contracts to full maturity or, should certain events occur, to terminate and cash settle all their contracts before their final maturity date.

Counterparty instrument rating: “cir” qualifier. This symbol indicates a counterparty instrument rating (CIR), which is a forward-looking opinion about the creditworthiness of an issuer in a securitization structure with respect to a specific financial obligation to a counterparty (including interest rate swaps, currency swaps, and liquidity facilities). The CIR is determined on an ultimate payment basis; these opinions do not take into account timeliness of payment.

Description of Fitch Ratings’ Corporate Finance Obligations:

Ratings of individual securities or financial obligations of a corporate issuer address relative vulnerability to default on an ordinal scale. In addition, for financial obligations in corporate finance, a measure of recovery given default on that liability is also included in the rating assessment. This notably applies to covered bonds ratings, which incorporate both an indication of the probability of default and of the recovery given a default of this debt instrument. On the contrary, ratings of debtor-in-possession (DIP) obligations incorporate the expectation of full repayment.

34

The relationship between the issuer scale and obligation scale assumes a generic historical average recovery. Individual obligations can be assigned ratings higher, lower, or the same as that entity’s issuer rating or Issuer Default Rating (IDR), based on their relative ranking, relative vulnerability to default or based on explicit Recovery Ratings.

As a result, individual obligations of entities, such as corporations, are assigned ratings higher, lower, or the same as that entity’s issuer rating or IDR, except DIP obligation ratings that are not based off an IDR and senior tranches of Enhanced Equipment Trust Certificates, for which IDRs are secondary dependencies, as Fitch focuses primarily on structure, collateral and legal protection.

At the lower end of the ratings scale, Fitch publishes explicit Recovery Ratings in many cases to complement issuer and obligation ratings.

AAA: Highest Credit Quality. “AAA” ratings denote the lowest expectation of credit risk. They are assigned only in cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events.

AA: Very High Credit Quality. “AA” ratings denote expectations of very low credit risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.

A: High Credit Quality. “A” ratings denote expectations of low credit risk. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings.

BBB: Good Credit Quality. “BBB” ratings indicate that expectations of credit risk are currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this capacity.

BB: Speculative. “BB” ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to credit risk, particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial alternatives may be available to allow financial commitments to be met.

B: Highly Speculative. “B” ratings indicate that material credit risk is present.

CCC: Substantial Credit Risk. “CCC” ratings indicate that substantial credit risk is present.

CC: Very High Levels of Credit Risk. “CC” ratings indicate very high levels of credit risk.

C: Exceptionally High Levels of Credit Risk. “C” indicates exceptionally high levels of credit risk.

The ratings of corporate finance obligations are linked to IDRs (or sometimes Viability Ratings for banks and non-bank financial institutions) by i) recovery expectations, including as often indicated by Recovery Ratings assigned in the case of low speculative grade issuers and ii) for banks and non-bank financial institutions an assessment of nonperformance risk relative to the risk captured in the IDR or Viability Ratings (e.g. in respect of certain hybrid securities).

For performing obligations, the obligation rating represents the risk of default including the effect of expected recoveries on the credit risk should a default occur.

If the obligation rating is higher than the rating of the issuer, this indicates above average recovery expectations in the event of default. If the obligations rating is lower than the rating of the issuer, this indicates low expected recoveries should default occur.

Ratings in the categories of “CCC”, “CC” and “C” can also relate to obligations or issuers that are in default. In this case, the rating does not opine on default risk but reflects the recovery expectation only.

Description of Fitch Ratings’ Issuer Default Ratings:

Rated entities in several sectors, including financial and non-financial corporations, sovereigns, insurance companies and some sectors within public finance, are generally assigned IDRs. IDRs are also assigned to certain entities or enterprises in global infrastructure, project finance and public finance. IDRs opine on an entity’s relative vulnerability to default including by way of a distressed debt exchange (DDE) on financial obligations. The threshold default risk addressed by the IDR is generally that of the financial obligations whose non-payment would best reflect the uncured failure of that entity. As such, IDRs also address relative vulnerability to bankruptcy, administrative receivership or similar concepts.

35

In aggregate, IDRs provide an ordinal ranking of issuers based on the agency’s view of their relative vulnerability to default, rather than a prediction of a specific percentage likelihood of default.

AAA: Highest Credit Quality. “AAA” ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events.

AA: Very High Credit Quality. “AA” ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.

A: High Credit Quality. “A” ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings.

BBB: Good Credit Quality. “BBB” ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this capacity.

BB: Speculative. “BB” ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial flexibility exists that supports the servicing of financial commitments.

B: Highly Speculative. “B” ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment.

CCC: Substantial Credit Risk. Default is a real possibility.

CC: Very High Levels of Credit Risk. Very low margin for safety. Default of some kind appears probable.

C: Near Default. A default or default-like process has begun, or for a closed funding vehicle, payment capacity is irrevocably impaired. Conditions that are indicative of a “C” category rating for an issuer include:

• The issuer has entered into a grace or cure period following non-payment of a material financial obligation;

• The formal announcement by the issuer or their agent of a DDE; and

• A closed financing vehicle where payment capacity is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to pay interest and/or principal in full during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default is imminent.

RD: Restricted Default. “RD” ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has experienced:

• An uncured payment default or DDE on a bond, loan or other material financial obligations, but has not entered into bankruptcy filing, administration, receivership, liquidation, or other formal winding-up procedure, and

• Has not otherwise ceased operating.

• This would include:

• The selective payment default on a specific class or currency of debt;

• The uncured expiry of any applicable original grace period, cure period or default forbearance period following a payment default on a bank loan, capital markets security or other material financial obligation;

D: Default. “D” ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up procedure or which has otherwise ceased business.

Default ratings are not assigned prospectively to entities or their obligations; within this context, non-payment on an instrument that contains a deferral feature or grace period will generally not be considered a default until after the expiration of the deferral or grace period, unless a default is otherwise driven by bankruptcy or other similar circumstance, or by a distressed debt exchange.

36

In all cases, the assignment of a default rating reflects the agency’s opinion as to the most appropriate rating category consistent with the rest of its universe of ratings and may differ from the definition of default under the terms of an issuer’s financial obligations or local commercial practice.

Description of Fitch Ratings’ Structured Finance Long-Term Obligation Ratings:

Ratings of structured finance obligations on the long-term scale consider the obligations’ relative vulnerability to default. These ratings are typically assigned to an individual security or tranche in a transaction and not to an issuer.

AAA: Highest Credit Quality.

“AAA” ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events.

AA: Very High Credit Quality.

“AA” ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.

A: High Credit Quality.

“A” ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings.

BBB: Good Credit Quality.

“BBB” ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this capacity.

BB: Speculative.

“BB” ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over time.

B: Highly Speculative.

“B” ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment.

CCC: Substantial Credit Risk.

Very low margin for safety. Default is a real possibility.

CC: Very High Levels of Credit Risk.

Default of some kind appears probable.

C: Exceptionally High Levels of Credit Risk.

Default appears imminent or inevitable.

D: Default.

Indicates a default. Default generally is defined as one of the following:

• Failure to make payment of principal and/or interest under the contractual terms of the rated obligation;

• Bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other winding-up or cessation of the business of an issuer/obligor; or

• Distressed exchange of an obligation, where creditors were offered securities with diminished structural or economic terms compared with the existing obligation to avoid a probable payment default.

37

Description of Fitch Ratings’ Country Ceilings Ratings:

Country Ceilings are expressed using the symbols of the long-term issuer primary credit rating scale and relate to sovereign jurisdictions also rated by Fitch on the IDR scale. They reflect the agency’s judgment regarding the risk of capital and exchange controls being imposed by the sovereign authorities that would prevent or materially impede the private sector’s ability to convert local currency into foreign currency and transfer to non-resident creditors — transfer and convertibility (T&C) risk. They are not ratings but expressions of a cap for the foreign currency issuer ratings of most, but not all, issuers in a given country. Intervention through capital or currency controls where an issuer is prevented comprehensively by its own government from paying out on cross-border bonds, held by investors both inside and outside its borders, would typically lead to a T&C default.

Description of Fitch Ratings’ Sovereigns, Public Finance and Global Infrastructure Obligations:

Ratings of public finance obligations, infrastructure and project finance obligations on the long-term scale, structured finance and fund finance obligations only consider the obligations’ relative vulnerability to default.

In limited cases in U.S. public finance, where Chapter 9 of the Bankruptcy Code provides reliably superior prospects for ultimate recovery to local government obligations that benefit from a statutory lien on revenues, Fitch reflects this in a security rating with limited notching above the IDR. Recovery expectations can also be reflected in a security rating in the U.S. during the pendency of a bankruptcy proceeding under the Code if there is sufficient visibility on potential recovery prospects.

Recovery Ratings are only assigned to infrastructure and project finance obligations, to indicate likely recovery prospects upon request. They are assessed in parallel to instrument ratings and typically do not influence the obligation rating, which remains premised on vulnerability to default.

AAA: Highest Credit Quality. “AAA” ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events.

AA: Very High Credit Quality. “AA” ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.

A: High Credit Quality. “A” ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings.

BBB: Good Credit Quality. “BBB” ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this capacity.

BB: Speculative. “BB” ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over time.

B: Highly Speculative. “B” ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment.

CCC: Substantial Credit Risk. Very low margin for safety. Default is a real possibility.

CC: Very High Levels of Credit Risk. Default of some kind appears probable.

C: Exceptionally High Levels of Credit Risk. Default appears imminent or inevitable.

D: Default. Indicates a default. Default generally is defined as one of the following:

• Failure to make payment of principal and/or interest under the contractual terms of the rated obligation;

• Bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other winding-up or cessation of the business of an issuer/obligor where payment default on an obligation is a virtual certainty; or

• Distressed exchange of an obligation, where creditors were offered securities with diminished structural or economic terms compared with the existing obligation to avoid a probable payment default.

38

Notes: In U.S. public finance, obligations may be pre-refunded, where funds sufficient to meet the requirements of the respective obligations are placed in an escrow account. When obligation ratings are maintained based on the escrowed funds and their structural elements, the ratings carry the suffix “pre” (e.g. “AAApre”, “AA+pre”).

Structured Finance Defaults

Imminent default, categorized under “C”, typically refers to the occasion where a payment default has been intimated by the issuer and is all but inevitable. This may, for example, be where an issuer has missed a scheduled payment but (as is typical) has a grace period during which it may cure the payment default. Another alternative would be where an issuer has formally announced a distressed debt exchange, but the date of the exchange still lies several days or weeks in the immediate future.

Additionally, in structured finance transactions, where analysis indicates that an instrument is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to pay interest and/or principal in full in accordance with the terms of the obligation’s documentation during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default in accordance with the terms of the documentation is imminent, the obligation will typically be rated in the “C” category.

Structured Finance Write-downs

Where an instrument has experienced an involuntary and, in the agency’s opinion, irreversible write-down of principal (i.e. other than through amortization, and resulting in a loss to the investor), a credit rating of “D” will be assigned to the instrument. Where the agency believes the write-down may prove to be temporary (and the loss may be written up again in future if and when performance improves), then a credit rating of “C” will typically be assigned. Should the write-down then later be reversed, the credit rating will be raised to an appropriate level for that instrument. Should the write-down later be deemed as irreversible, the credit rating will be lowered to “D”.

Notes:

In the case of structured finance, while the ratings do not address the loss severity given default of the rated liability, loss severity assumptions on the underlying assets are nonetheless typically included as part of the analysis. Loss severity assumptions are used to derive pool cash flows available to service the rated liability.

The suffix “sf” denotes an issue that is a structured finance transaction.

Description of Fitch Ratings’ Short-Term Ratings Assigned to Issuers and Obligations:

A short-term issuer or obligation rating is based in all cases on the short-term vulnerability to default of the rated entity and relates to the capacity to meet financial obligations in accordance with the documentation governing the relevant obligation. Short-term deposit ratings may be adjusted for loss severity. Short-Term Ratings are assigned to obligations whose initial maturity is viewed as “short term” based on market convention (a long-term rating can also be used to rate an issue with short maturity). Typically, this means a timeframe of up to 13 months for corporate, sovereign, and structured obligations, and up to 36 months for obligations in U.S. public finance markets.

F1: Highest Short-Term Credit Quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments; may have an added “+” to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature.

F2: Good Short-Term Credit Quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments.

F3: Fair Short-Term Credit Quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate.

B: Speculative Short-Term Credit Quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions.

C: High Short-Term Default Risk. Default is a real possibility.

RD: Restricted Default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments, although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Typically applicable to entity ratings only.

D: Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a short-term obligation.

39