JPMORGAN TRUST I
J.P. Morgan Income Funds
JPMorgan Corporate Bond Fund
JPMorgan Emerging Markets Debt Fund
JPMorgan Floating Rate Income Fund
JPMorgan Global Bond Opportunities Fund
JPMorgan Income Fund
JPMorgan Managed Income Fund
JPMorgan Short Duration Core Plus Fund
JPMorgan Strategic Income Opportunities Fund
J.P. Morgan Money Market Funds
JPMorgan 100% U.S. Treasury Securities Money Market Fund
JPMorgan California Municipal Money Market Fund
JPMorgan Federal Money Market Fund
JPMorgan New York Municipal Money Market Fund
JPMorgan Prime Money Market Fund
JPMorgan Tax Free Money Market Fund
J.P. Morgan Municipal Bond Funds
JPMorgan California Tax Free Bond Fund
JPMorgan New York Tax Free Bond Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement Funds
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Income Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2025 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2030 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2035 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2040 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2045 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2050 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2055 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2060 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement Blend Funds
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend Income Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2025 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2030 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2035 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2040 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2045 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2050 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2055 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2060 Fund
J.P. Morgan U.S. Equity Funds
JPMorgan Diversified Fund
JPMorgan Hedged Equity Fund
JPMorgan Mid Cap Equity Fund
JPMorgan Small Cap Blend Fund
JPMorgan Small Cap Equity Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Equity Fund
JPMorgan U.S. GARP Equity Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Large Cap Core Plus Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Research Enhanced Equity Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Small Company Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Sustainable Leaders Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Value Fund
JPMorgan Value Advantage Fund
J.P. Morgan International Equity Funds
JPMorgan Developed International Value Fund
JPMorgan Emerging Markets Equity Fund
JPMorgan Europe Dynamic Fund
JPMorgan International Equity Fund
JPMorgan International Focus Fund
J.P. Morgan Funds
JPMorgan Global Allocation Fund
JPMorgan Income Builder Fund
J.P. Morgan Specialty Funds
JPMorgan Research Market Neutral Fund
J.P. Morgan Tax Aware Funds
JPMorgan Tax Aware Real Return Fund
JPMORGAN TRUST II
J.P. Morgan Income Funds
JPMorgan Core Bond Fund
JPMorgan Core Plus Bond Fund
JPMorgan Government Bond Fund
JPMorgan High Yield Fund
JPMorgan Short Duration Bond Fund
SUP-MF-SAIII-426
J.P. Morgan Money Market Funds
JPMorgan Liquid Assets Money Market Fund
JPMorgan Municipal Money Market Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Government Money Market Fund
JPMorgan U.S. Treasury Plus Money Market Fund
J.P. Morgan Municipal Bond Funds
JPMorgan Short-Intermediate Municipal Bond Fund
JPMorgan Tax Free Bond Fund
J.P. Morgan Investor Funds
JPMorgan Investor Balanced Fund
JPMorgan Investor Conservative Growth Fund
JPMorgan Investor Growth Fund
JPMorgan Investor Growth & Income Fund
J.P. Morgan U.S. Equity Funds
JPMorgan Equity Income Fund
JPMorgan Equity Index Fund
JPMorgan Large Cap Growth Fund
JPMorgan Large Cap Value Fund
JPMorgan Mid Cap Growth Fund
JPMorgan Small Cap Growth Fund
JPMorgan Small Cap Value Fund
JPMorgan SMID Cap Equity Fund
JPMORGAN TRUST IV
J.P. Morgan Money Market Funds
JPMorgan Institutional Tax Free Money Market Fund
JPMorgan Securities Lending Money Market Fund
J.P. Morgan Municipal Bond Funds
JPMorgan Ultra-Short Municipal Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement Funds
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2065 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® 2070 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement Blend Funds
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2065 Fund
JPMorgan SmartRetirement® Blend 2070 Fund
J.P. Morgan Income Funds
JPMorgan Preferred and Income Securities Fund
J.P. Morgan U.S. Equity Funds
JPMorgan Equity Premium Income Fund
JPMorgan Hedged Equity 2 Fund
JPMorgan Hedged Equity 3 Fund
J.P. Morgan International Equity Funds
JPMorgan Emerging Markets Research Enhanced Equity Fund
J.P. MORGAN FLEMING MUTUAL FUND GROUP, INC.
J.P. Morgan U.S. Equity Funds
JPMorgan Mid Cap Value Fund
J.P. MORGAN MUTUAL FUND INVESTMENT TRUST
J.P. Morgan U.S. Equity Funds
JPMorgan Growth Advantage Fund
UNDISCOVERED MANAGERS FUNDS
Undiscovered Managers Behavioral Value Fund
(All Share Classes)
(each, a “Fund” and together, the “Funds”)
Supplement dated April 1, 2026
to the current Statements of Additional Information, as supplemented
The Statement of Additional Information Part II (SAI Part II) for the above Funds is replaced in its entirety with the attached SAI Part II.
INVESTORS SHOULD RETAIN THIS SUPPLEMENT WITH THE
STATEMENTS OF ADDITIONAL INFORMATION FOR FUTURE REFERENCE
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| A-1
| |
| B-1 |
| Name (Year of Birth; Term of Office,
and Length of Time Served)(1) |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past 5 Years
(or longer) |
Number of Funds in Fund Complex Overseen by Trustee(2)
|
Other Trusteeships/ Directorships Held During the Past 5
Years (or
longer)(3) |
| Independent Trustees |
|
|
|
| Stephen P. Fisher (1959); Trustee, since 2018. |
Retired; Chairman and Chief Executive Officer, NYLIFE Distributors LLC (registered broker- dealer) (serving in various roles 2008- 2013); Chairman, NYLIM Service Company LLC (transfer agent) (2008- 2017); New York Life Investment Management LLC (registered investment adviser) (serving in various roles 2005- 2017); Chairman, IndexIQ Advisors LLC (registered investment adviser for ETFs) (2014-2017); President, MainStay VP Funds Trust (2007-2017), MainStay DefinedTerm Municipal Opportunities Fund (2011-2017) and Main- Stay Funds Trust (2007-2017) (registered investment companies). |
174 |
None. |
| Gary L. French
(1951); Trustee, since 2014. |
Real Estate Investor (2011-2020); Investment management industry Consultant and Expert Witness (2011-present); Senior Consultant for The Regulatory Fundamentals Group LLC (2011-2017). |
174 |
Independent Trustee, The China Fund, Inc. (2013- 2019); Exchange Traded Concepts Trust II (2012- 2014); Exchange Traded Concepts Trust I (2011- 2014). |
| Name (Year of Birth; Term of Office,
and Length of Time Served)(1) |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past 5 Years (or longer) |
Number of Funds in Fund Complex Overseen by Trustee(2)
|
Other Trusteeships/ Directorships Held During the Past 5 Years (or
longer)(3) |
| Kathleen M. Gallagher (1958); Trustee, since 2018. |
Retired; Chief Investment Officer – Benefit Plans, Ford Motor Company (serving in various roles 1985-2016). |
174 |
Non-Executive Director, Legal & General Investment Management (Holdings) (2018- present); Non-Executive Director, Legal & General Investment Management America (U.S. Holdings) (financial services and insurance) (2017- present); Advisory Board Member, State Street Global Advisors Total Portfolio Solutions (2017-present); Member, Client Advisory Council, Financial Engines, LLC (registered investment adviser) (2011-2016); Director, Ford Pension Funds Investment Management Ltd. (2007- 2016). |
| Robert J. Grassi
(1957); Trustee, since 2014. |
Sole Proprietor, Academy Hills Advisors LLC (2012- 2024); Pension Director, Corning Incorporated (2002- 2012). |
174 |
None. |
| Frankie D. Hughes (1952); Trustee, since 2008. |
President, Ashland Hughes Properties (property management) (2014–present); President and Chief Investment Officer, Hughes Capital Management, Inc. (fixed income asset management) (1993– 2014). |
174 |
None. |
| Name (Year of Birth; Term of Office,
and Length of Time Served)(1) |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past 5 Years (or longer) |
Number of Funds in Fund Complex Overseen by Trustee(2)
|
Other Trusteeships/ Directorships Held During the Past 5 Years (or
longer)(3) |
| Raymond Kanner (1953); Trustee, since 2017. |
Retired; Managing Director and Chief Investment Officer, IBM Retirement Funds (2007–2016). |
174 |
Advisory Board Member, Penso Advisors, LLC (2020- 2024); Advisory Board Member, Los Angeles Capital (2018-present); Advisory Board Member, State Street Global Advisors Total Portfolio Solutions (2017-present); Acting Executive Director, Committee on Investment of Employee Benefit Assets (CIEBA) (2016-2017); Advisory Board Member, Betterment for Business (robo advisor) (2016– 2017); Advisory Board Member, BlueStar Indexes (index creator) (2013–2017); Director, Emerging Markets Growth Fund (registered investment company) (1997-2016); Member, Russell Index Client Advisory Board (2001- 2015). |
| Thomas P. Lemke
(1954); Trustee, since 2014. |
Retired since 2013. |
174 |
Independent Trustee of Advisors’ Inner Circle III fund platform, consisting of the following: (i) the Advisors’ Inner Circle Fund III, (ii) the Gallery Trust, (iii) the Schroder Series Trust, (iv) the Delaware Wilshire Private Markets Fund (since 2020), (v) Chiron Capital Allocation Fund Ltd., (vi) formerly the Winton Diversified Opportunities Fund (2014-2018), and (vii) Symmetry Panoramic Trust (since 2018). |
| Name (Year of Birth; Term of Office,
and Length of Time Served)(1) |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past 5 Years (or longer) |
Number of Funds in Fund Complex Overseen by Trustee(2)
|
Other Trusteeships/ Directorships Held During the Past 5 Years (or
longer)(3) |
| Brenda Lyons (1963); Trustee, since 2026. |
State Street Corporation: Executive Vice President (2007- 2026); Global Head, Corporate Secretarial and Administration Services (2024–2026); Executive Business Manager, Investment Services (2022–2024); Executive Vice President, Global Head of Product (2018– 2022); Executive Vice President, Global Head of Fund Administration and Specialized Products (2011–2018). Earlier: Independent business consultant to a large mutual funds board (2006–2007); Deutsche Asset Management/Scudder Investments (1987– 2006. |
174 |
State Street Foundation, Board Member (2014– 2021; 2024–2026); American Red Cross, Massachusetts, Board Member (2023–present); Director, International Financial Data Services (IFDS), joint ventures with State Street in Canada, Luxembourg, Ireland (2021–2023); Director, State Street Syntel Services Ltd. (2015–2019); Big Sisters of Greater Boston, Board Member (2016–2022); Thayer Academy, Board Member (2012–2022); Cradles to Crayons, Former Board Member; The Sage School, Former Board Chair and Board Member. |
| Mary E. Martinez (1960); Chairman, since 2026; Trustee, since 2013. |
Real Estate Investor/ Adviser (2010– present); Managing Director, Bank of America (asset management) (2007– 2008); Chief Operating Officer, U.S. Trust Asset Management, U.S. Trust Company (asset management) (2003–2007); President, Excelsior Funds (registered investment companies) (2004–2005). |
174 |
None. |
| Marilyn McCoy (1948); Trustee, since 1999. |
Retired; Vice President of Administration and Planning, Northwestern University (1985– 2023). |
174 |
None. |
| Name (Year of Birth; Term of Office,
and Length of Time Served)(1) |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past 5 Years (or longer) |
Number of Funds in Fund Complex Overseen by Trustee(2)
|
Other Trusteeships/ Directorships Held During the Past 5 Years (or
longer)(3) |
| Shaun Real (1965); Trustee, since 2026. |
Partner, Financial Services, Ernst & Young (EY), Boston (2010–2025); New England Financial Services Industry Leader, EY (2018– 2024); Wealth and Asset Management Assurance Practice Leader, EY (2010– 2018); Assurance Practice, EY (1987– 2010). |
174 |
Board Member, New England Council (2021– present); Director Emeritus, Expect Miracles Foundation (2015–2021); Board Member, Milton-Hoosic Club (2017–2020); Board Member, Canton Youth Hockey (2017– 2020). |
| Emily A. Youssouf (1951); Trustee, since 2014. |
Adjunct Professor (2011-present) and Clinical Professor (2009-2011), NYU Schack Institute of Real Estate; Board Member and Member of the Audit Committee (2013-present), Chair of Finance Committee (2019-present), Member of Related Parties Committee (2013-2018) and Member of the Enterprise Risk Committee (2015- 2018), PennyMac Financial Services, Inc.; Board Member (2005-2018), Chair of Capital Committee (2006-2016), Chair of Audit Committee (2005-2018), Member of Finance Committee (2005-2018) and Chair of IT Committee (2016-2018), NYC Health and Hospitals Corporation. |
174 |
Trustee, NYC School Construction Authority (2009-present); Board Member, NYS Job Development Authority (2008-present); Trustee and Chair of the Audit Committee of the Transit Center Foundation (2015-2019). |
| Interested Trustees |
|
|
|
| Robert F.
Deutsch(4)
(1957); Trustee, since 2014. |
Retired; Head of ETF Business for JPMorgan Asset Management (2013-2017); Head of Global Liquidity Business for JPMorgan Asset Management (2003-2013). |
174 |
Treasurer and Director of the JUST Capital Foundation (2017- present); Advisory Board Chair, Lerner Business School at the University of Delaware (2018- present). |
| Name (Year of Birth; Term of Office,
and Length of Time Served)(1) |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past 5 Years (or longer) |
Number of Funds in Fund Complex Overseen by Trustee(2)
|
Other Trusteeships/ Directorships Held During the Past 5 Years (or
longer)(3) |
| Nina O.
Shenker(4)
(1957); Trustee, since 2022. |
Vice Chair (2017- 2021), General Counsel and Managing Director (2008-2016), Associate General Counsel and Managing Director (2004-2008), J.P. Morgan Asset & Wealth Management. |
174 |
Director and Member of Executive, Legal and Human Resources Committees; American Jewish Joint Distribution Committee (2018-present). |
| Name of Committee |
Members |
Committee Chair |
| Audit and Valuation Committee |
Ms. Gallagher Mr. French Mr. Kanner Mr. Real |
Ms. Gallagher |
| Name of Committee |
Members |
Committee Chair |
| Compliance Committee |
Mr. Lemke Mr. Fisher Mr. Grassi Ms. Hughes
Ms. Lyons |
Mr. Lemke |
| Governance Committee |
Ms. Martinez
Mr. Fisher
Mr. French
Ms. McCoy |
Ms. Martinez |
| ETF Committee |
Mr. Deutsch Ms. Gallagher Ms. Hughes Mr. Kanner Ms. Shenker Ms. Youssouf |
Mr. Deutsch |
| Equity Committee |
Mr. Kanner Mr. Deutsch Mr. French Ms. McCoy |
Mr. Kanner |
| Fixed Income Committee |
Mr. Grassi Ms. Hughes Ms. Lyons Ms. Shenker Ms. Youssouf |
Mr. Grassi |
| Money Market and Alternative Products Committee |
Mr. Fisher Ms. Gallagher Mr. Lemke Mr. Real |
Mr. Fisher |
| Name (Year of Birth), Positions Held with the Trusts (Since) |
Principal Occupations During Past 5 Years |
| Matthew J. Kamburowski (1980), President and Principal Executive Officer (2025)* |
Managing Director, Chief Administrative Officer for J.P. Morgan pooled vehicles and Global Head of Business Transformation. Mr. Kamburowski has been with JPMorgan Chase & Co. since 2001. |
| Timothy J. Clemens (1975), Treasurer and Principal Financial Officer (2018) |
Managing Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. Clemens has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since 2013. |
| Gregory S. Samuels (1980), Secretary (2019) (formerly Assistant Secretary 2010-2019) |
Managing Director and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase. Mr. Samuels has been with JPMorgan Chase since 2010. |
| Stephen M. Ungerman (1953), Chief Compliance Officer (2005) |
Managing Director, JPMorgan Chase & Co. Mr. Ungerman has been with JPMorgan Chase & Co. since 2000. |
| Name (Year of Birth), Positions Held with the Trusts (Since) |
Principal Occupations During Past 5 Years |
| Kiesha Astwood-Smith (1973), Assistant Secretary (2021) |
Vice President and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase since June 2021; Senior Director and Counsel, Equitable Financial Life Insurance Company (formerly, AXA Equitable Life Insurance Company) from September 2015 through June 2021.
|
| Matthew Beck (1988), Assistant Secretary (2021)* |
Vice President and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase since May 2021; Senior Legal Counsel, Ultimus Fund Solutions from May 2018 through May 2021; General Counsel, The Nottingham Company from April 2014 through May 2018. |
| Elizabeth A. Davin (1964), Assistant Secretary (2005)* |
Executive Director and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase. Ms. Davin has been with JPMorgan Chase (formerly Bank One Corporation) since 2004. |
| Carmine Lekstutis (1980), Assistant Secretary (2011) |
Executive Director and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase. Mr. Lekstutis has been with JPMorgan Chase since 2011. |
| Erika K. Messbarger (1987), Assistant Secretary (2025)* |
Vice President and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase; Ms. Messbarger has been with JPMorgan Chase since October 2011. |
| Henry F. Pickell (1980), Assistant Secretary (2025)* |
Vice President and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase; Mr. Pickell has been with JPMorgan Chase since July 2018. |
| Max Vogel (1990),
Assistant Secretary (2021) |
Vice President and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase since June 2021; Associate, Proskauer Rose LLP (law firm) from March 2017 to June 2021. |
| Zachary E. Vonnegut-Gabovitch (1986), Assistant Secretary (2017) |
Executive Director and Assistant General Counsel, JPMorgan Chase. Mr. Vonnegut-Gabovitch has been with JPMorgan Chase since September 2016. |
| Frederick J. Cavaliere (1978), Assistant Treasurer (2015)** |
Executive Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. Cavaliere has been with JPMorgan since May 2006. |
| Michael M. D’Ambrosio (1969), Assistant Treasurer (2012) |
Managing Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. D’Ambrosio has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since 2012. |
| Aleksandr Fleytekh (1972), Assistant Treasurer (2019) |
Executive Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. Fleytekh has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since February 2012. |
| Shannon Gaines (1977), Assistant Treasurer (2018)* |
Executive Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. Gaines has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since January 2014. |
| Jeffrey D. House (1972), Assistant Treasurer (2017)* |
Vice President, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. House has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since July 2006. |
| Joseph Parascondola (1963), Assistant Treasurer (2011)** |
Executive Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Mr. Parascondola has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since 2006. |
| Gillian I. Sands (1969), Assistant Treasurer (2012) |
Executive Director, J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. Ms. Sands has been with J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. since September 2012. |
| Money Market
Funds1:
|
|
|
| Tier One |
First $250 billion |
0.0013% |
| Tier Two |
Over $250 billion |
0.0010% |
| All Funds except Money Market Funds: |
|
|
| Tier One |
Up to $100 billion |
0.00375% |
| Tier Two |
$100 billion to $175 billion |
0.0030% |
| Tier Three |
$175 billion to $600 billion |
0.0020% |
| Tier Four |
Over $600 billion |
0.0015% |
| Other Fees: |
|
|
| Additional Share Classes (this additional class expense applies after the tenth class) |
|
$2,000 per Class |
| Daily Market-based Net Asset Value Calculation for Money Market Funds |
|
$15,000 per Fund |
| Hourly Net Asset Value Calculation for Money Market Funds |
|
$5,000 per Fund |
| Floating NAV Support for Money Market Funds |
|
$100,000 per Fund |
| Annual Minimums: |
|
| Money Market Funds |
$15,000 per Fund |
| All Other Funds |
$20,000 per Fund |
| Money Market
Funds1:
|
|
|
| Tier One |
First $250 billion |
0.0013% |
| Tier Two |
Over $250 billion |
0.0010% |
| All Funds except Money Market Funds: |
|
|
| Tier One |
Up to $85 billion |
0.0035% |
| Tier Two |
$85 billion to $160 billion |
0.0030% |
| Tier Three |
$160 billion to $425 billion |
0.0020% |
| Tier Four |
Over $425 billion |
0.0010% |
| Other Fees: |
|
|
| Additional Share Classes (this additional class expense applies after the tenth class) |
|
$2,200 per Class |
| Daily Market-based Net Asset Value Calculation for Money Market Funds |
|
$16,500 per Fund |
| Hourly Net Asset Value Calculation for Money Market Funds |
|
$5,500 per Fund |
| Floating NAV Support for Money Market Funds |
|
$110,000 per Fund |
| Annual Minimums: |
|
| Money Market Funds |
$15,000 per Fund |
| All Other Funds |
$15,000 per Fund |
| A-1 |
A short-term obligation rated ‘A-1’ is rated in the highest category by S&P Global
Ratings. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is
strong. Within this category, certain obligations are designated with a plus
sign (+). This indicates that the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial
commitments on these obligations is extremely strong. |
| A-2 |
A short-term obligation rated ‘A-2’ is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects
of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating
categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation is satisfactory. |
| A-3 |
A short-term obligation rated ‘A-3’ exhibits adequate protection parameters. However,
adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken an
obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the
obligation. |
| B |
A short-term obligation rated ‘B' is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial
commitments; however, it faces major ongoing uncertainties that could lead to the
obligor's inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.
|
| C |
A short-term obligation rated ‘C’ is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is
dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor
to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
| D |
A short-term obligation rated ‘D’ is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For
non-hybrid capital instruments, the ‘D’ rating category is used when payments on
an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P Global Ratings
believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period.
However, any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated
as five business days. The ‘D’ rating also will be used upon the
filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where
default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay
provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to ‘D’ if it is subject to a
distressed debt restructuring. |
| F1 |
HIGHEST SHORT-TERM CREDIT QUALITY. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments; may have an added “+” to
denote any exceptionally strong credit feature. |
| F2 |
GOOD SHORT-TERM CREDIT QUALITY. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments. |
| F3 |
FAIR SHORT-TERM CREDIT QUALITY. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate. |
| B |
SPECULATIVE SHORT-TERM CREDIT QUALITY. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions. |
| C |
HIGH SHORT-TERM DEFAULT RISK. Default is a real possibility. |
| RD |
RESTRICTED DEFAULT. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments, although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Typically applicable to entity ratings only. |
| D |
DEFAULT. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a short-
term obligation. |
| P-1 |
Ratings of Prime-1 reflect a superior ability to repay short-term debt obligations. |
| P-2 |
Ratings of Prime-2 reflect a strong ability to repay short-term debt obligations. |
| P-3 |
Ratings of Prime-3 reflect an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations. |
| NP |
Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime
rating categories. |
| R-1 (high) |
Highest credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations
as they fall due is exceptionally high. Unlikely to be adversely affected by future
events. |
| R-1 (middle) |
Superior credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations
as they fall due is very high. Differs from R-1 (high) by a relatively modest degree.
Unlikely to be significantly vulnerable to future events. |
| R-1 (low) |
Good credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations as
they fall due is substantial. Overall strength is not as favorable as higher rating
categories. May be vulnerable to future events, but qualifying negative factors
are considered manageable. |
| R-2 (high) |
Upper end of adequate credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations as they fall due is acceptable. May be vulnerable to future events. |
| R-2 (middle) |
Adequate credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations as they fall due is acceptable. May be vulnerable to future events or may be
exposed to other factors that could reduce credit quality. |
| R-2 (low) |
Lower end of adequate credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations as they fall due is acceptable. May be vulnerable to future events.
A number of challenges are present that could affect the issuer’s ability to meet such
obligations. |
| R-3 |
Lowest end of adequate credit quality. There is a capacity for the payment of short-term
financial obligations as they fall due. May be vulnerable to future events and the
certainty of meeting such obligations could be impacted by a variety of
developments. |
| R-4 |
Speculative credit quality. The capacity for the payment of short-term financial obligations as they fall due is uncertain. |
| R-5 |
Highly speculative credit quality. There is a high level of uncertainty as to the capacity
to meet short-term financial obligations as they fall due. |
| D |
When the issuer has filed under any applicable bankruptcy, insolvency or winding up statute or there is a failure to satisfy an obligation after the exhaustion of grace periods,
a downgrade to D may occur. DBRS Morningstar may also use SD (Selective Default)
in cases where only some securities are impacted, such as the case of a “distressed
exchange.” |
| AAA |
An obligation rated ‘AAA’ has the highest rating assigned by S&P Global Ratings. The
obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is extremely
strong. |
| AA |
An obligation rated ‘AA’ differs from the highest-rated obligations only to a small
degree. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is
very strong. |
| A |
An obligation rated ‘A’ is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes
in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories.
However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the
obligation is still strong. |
| BBB |
An obligation rated ‘BBB’ exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse
economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.
|
| BB,B,CCC,CC and C |
Obligations rated ‘BB’, ‘B’, ‘CCC’, ‘CC’, and ‘C’ are regarded as having significant
speculative characteristics. ‘BB’ indicates the least degree of speculation and
‘C’ the highest. While such obligations will likely have some
quality and protective characteristics, these may be outweighed by large
uncertainties or major exposure to adverse conditions. |
| BB |
An obligation rated ‘BB’ is less vulnerable to nonpayment than other speculative issues.
However, it faces major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business,
financial, or economic conditions that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity
to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
| B |
An obligation rated ‘B’ is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated ‘BB’,
but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments on the
obligation. Adverse business, financial, or economic conditions will likely
impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation. |
| CCC |
An obligation rated ‘CCC’ is currently vulnerable to nonpayment, and is dependent
upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its
financial commitments on the obligation. In the event of adverse business,
financial, or economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.
|
| CC |
An obligation rated ‘CC’ is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment. The ‘CC’ rating
is used when a default has not yet occurred but S&P Global Ratings expects default to
be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to
default. |
| C |
An obligation rated ‘C’ is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation
is expected to have lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared with
obligations that are rated higher. |
| D |
An obligation rated ‘D’ is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid
capital instruments, the ‘D’ rating category is used when payments on an
obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P Global Ratings believes
that such payments will be made within five business days in the absence of a
stated grace period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or 30
calendar days. The ‘D’ rating also will be used upon the filing of a
bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an
obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A
rating on an obligation is lowered to ‘D’ if it is subject to a distressed debt
restructuring. |
| AAA |
HIGHEST CREDIT QUALITY. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of default
risk. They are assigned only in cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of
financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected
by foreseeable events. |
| AA |
VERY HIGH CREDIT QUALITY. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low default
risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This
capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.
|
| A |
HIGH CREDIT QUALITY. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The
capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. This capacity may,
nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or economic conditions than
is the case for higher ratings. |
| BBB |
GOOD CREDIT QUALITY. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are
currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered
adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this
capacity. |
| BB |
SPECULATIVE. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk,
particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over
time; however, business or financial flexibility exists that supports the
servicing of financial commitments. |
| B |
HIGHLY SPECULATIVE. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a
limited margin of safety remains. Financial commitments are currently being met;
however, capacity for continued payment is vulnerable to deterioration in the business
and economic environment. |
| CCC |
SUBSTANTIAL CREDIT RISK. Default is a real possibility. |
| CC |
VERY HIGH LEVELS OF CREDIT RISK. Default of some kind appears probable. |
| C |
NEAR DEFAULT. A default or default-like process has begun, or the issuer is in standstill, or for a closed funding vehicle, payment capacity is irrevocably impaired.
Conditions that are indicative of a ‘C’ category rating for an issuer
include: |
| |
●the issuer has entered into a grace or cure period following
non-payment of a material financial obligation;
●the issuer has entered into a temporary negotiated waiver or standstill agreement following a payment default on a material financial obligation; ●the formal announcement by the issuer or their agent of a
distressed debt exchange; ●a closed financing vehicle where payment capacity is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to pay interest and/or principal in full during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default is imminent. |
| RD |
RESTRICTED DEFAULT. ‘RD’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has
experienced: |
| |
●an uncured payment default or distressed debt exchange on a
bond, loan or other material financial obligation, but
●has not entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or
other formal winding-up procedure, and
●has not otherwise ceased operating. This would include: ●the selective payment default on a specific class or currency
of debt; ●the uncured expiry of any applicable grace period, cure period or default forbearance
period following a payment default on a bank loan, capital markets security or other
material financial obligation;
●the extension of multiple waivers or forbearance periods upon a payment default on one or more material financial obligations, either in series or in parallel; ordinary execution of a distressed debt exchange on one or more material financial obligations. |
| D |
DEFAULT. ‘D’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch Ratings’ opinion has entered into
bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up
procedure or that has otherwise ceased business. |
| Aaa |
Obligations rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, with minimal risk. |
| Aa |
Obligations rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit
risk. |
| A |
Obligations rated A are judged to be upper-medium-grade and are subject to low credit risk. |
| Baa |
Obligations rated Baa are subject to moderate credit risk. They are considered medium- grade and as such may possess certain speculative characteristics. |
| Ba |
Obligations rated Ba are judged to have speculative elements and are subject to substantial credit risk. |
| B |
Obligations rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk. |
| Caa |
Obligations rated Caa are judged to be of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk. |
| Ca |
Obligations rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with
some prospect of recovery in principal and interest. |
| C |
Obligations rated C are the lowest-rated class of bonds and are typically in default, with
little prospect for recovery of principal or interest. |
| AAA |
Highest credit quality. The capacity for the payment of financial obligations is exceptionally high and unlikely to be adversely affected by future events. |
| AA |
Superior credit quality. The capacity for the payment of financial obligations is considered high. Credit quality differs from AAA only to a small degree. Unlikely to be
significantly vulnerable to future events. |
| A |
Good credit quality. The capacity for the payment of financial obligations is substantial,
but of lesser credit quality than AA. May be vulnerable to future events, but qualifying
negative factors are considered manageable. |
| BBB |
Adequate credit quality. The capacity for the payment of financial obligations is considered acceptable. May be vulnerable to future events. |
| BB |
Speculative, non-investment grade credit quality. The capacity for the payment of financial obligations is uncertain. Vulnerable to future events. |
| B |
Highly speculative credit quality. There is a high level of uncertainty as to the capacity
to meet financial obligations. |
| CCC/CC/C |
Very highly speculative credit quality. In danger of defaulting on financial obligations.
There is little difference between these three categories, although CC and C ratings are
normally applied to obligations that are seen as highly likely to default, or
subordinated to obligations rated in the CCC to B range. Obligations in respect
of which default has not technically taken place but is considered inevitable
may be rated in the C category. |
| D |
When the issuer has filed under any applicable bankruptcy, insolvency or winding up statute or there is a failure to satisfy an obligation after the exhaustion of grace periods,
a downgrade to D may occur. DBRS Morningstar may also use SD (Selective Default)
in cases where only some securities are impacted, such as the case of a “distressed
exchange.” |
| AAA |
An insurer rated ‘AAA’ has extremely strong financial security characteristics. ‘AAA’ is
the highest insurer financial strength rating assigned by S&P Global Ratings.
|
| AA |
An insurer rated ‘AA’ has very strong financial security characteristics, differing only
slightly from those rated higher. |
| A |
An insurer rated ‘A’ has strong financial security characteristics, but is somewhat more
likely to be affected by adverse business conditions than are insurers with higher
ratings. |
| BBB |
An insurer rated ‘BBB’ has good financial security characteristics, but is more likely to
be affected by adverse business conditions than are higher-rated insurers. |
| BB, B, CCC, and CC |
An insurer rated ‘BB’ or lower is regarded as having vulnerable characteristics that may
outweigh its strengths, ‘BB’ indicates the least degree of vulnerability within
the range and ‘CC’ the highest. |
| BB |
An insurer rated ‘BB’ has marginal financial security characteristics. Positive attributes
exist, but adverse business conditions could lead to insufficient ability to meet financial
commitments. |
| B |
An insurer rated ‘B’ has weak financial security characteristics. Adverse business
conditions will likely impair its ability to meet financial commitments. |
| CCC |
An insurer rated ‘CCC’ has very weak financial security characteristics, and is
dependent on favorable business conditions to meet financial commitments. |
| CC |
An insurer rated ‘CC’ has extremely weak financial security characteristics and is likely
not to meet some of its financial commitments. |
| SD and D |
An insurer rated ‘SD’ (selective default) or ‘D’ is in default on one or more of its
insurance policy obligations.
The ‘D’ rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the
taking of similar action if payments on a policy obligation are at risk. A
‘D’ rating is assigned when S&P Global Ratings believes that the
default will be a general default and that the obligor will fail to pay
substantially all of its obligations in full in accordance with the policy
terms. An ‘SD’ rating is assigned when S&P Global Ratings
believes that the insurer has selectively defaulted on a specific class of
policies but it will continue to meet its payment obligations on other classes
of obligations. An ‘SD’ includes the completion of a distressed debt
restructuring. Claim denials due to lack of coverage or other legally permitted
defenses are not considered defaults. |
| AAA |
EXCEPTIONALLY STRONG. ‘AAA’ IFS Ratings denote the lowest expectation of ceased or interrupted payments. They are assigned only in the case of exceptionally strong capacity to meet policyholder and contract obligations. This capacity is highly
unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
| AA |
VERY STRONG. ‘AA’ IFS Ratings denote a very low expectation of ceased or interrupted payments. They indicate very strong capacity to meet policyholder and contract obligations. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events. |
| A |
STRONG. ‘A’ IFS Ratings denote a low expectation of ceased or interrupted payments.
They indicate strong capacity to meet policyholder and contract obligations. This
capacity may, nonetheless, be more vulnerable to changes in circumstances or in
economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
| BBB |
GOOD. ‘BBB’ IFS Ratings indicate that there is currently a low expectation of ceased
or interrupted payments. The capacity to meet policyholder and contract obligations on
a timely basis is considered adequate, but adverse changes in circumstances and
economic conditions are more likely to impact this capacity. |
| BB |
MODERATELY WEAK. ‘BB’ IFS Ratings indicate that there is an elevated vulnerability to ceased or interrupted payments, particularly as the result of adverse
economic or market changes over time. However, business or financial alternatives may
be available to allow for policyholder and contract obligations to be met in a
timely manner. |
| B |
WEAK. ‘B’ IFS Ratings indicate two possible conditions. If obligations are still being
met on a timely basis, there is significant risk that ceased or interrupted payments could
occur in the future, but a limited margin of safety remains. Capacity for
continued timely payments is contingent upon a sustained, favorable business and
economic environment, and favorable market conditions. Alternatively, a
‘B’ IFS Rating is assigned to obligations that have experienced
ceased or interrupted payments, but with the potential for extremely high
recoveries. Such obligations would possess a recovery assessment of
‘RR1’ (Outstanding). |
| CCC |
VERY WEAK. ‘CCC’ IFS Ratings indicate two possible conditions. If obligations are
still being met on a timely basis, there is a real possibility that ceased or interrupted
payments could occur in the future. Capacity for continued timely payments is
solely reliant upon a sustained, favorable business and economic environment,
and favorable market conditions. Alternatively, a ‘CCC’ IFS Rating
is assigned to obligations that have experienced ceased or interrupted payments,
and with the potential for average to superior recoveries. Such obligations
would possess a recovery assessment of ‘RR2’ (Superior),
‘RR3’ (Good), and ‘RR4’ (Average). |
| CC |
EXTREMELY WEAK. ‘CC’ IFS Ratings indicate two possible conditions. If obligations are still being met on a timely basis, it is probable that ceased or interrupted
payments will occur in the future. Alternatively, a ‘CC’ IFS Rating is assigned to
obligations that have experienced ceased or interrupted payments, with the
potential for average to below-average recoveries. Such obligations would
possess a recovery assessment of ‘RR4’ (Average) or
‘RR5’ (Below Average). |
| C |
DISTRESSED. ‘C’ IFS Ratings indicate two possible conditions. If obligations are still
being met on a timely basis, ceased or interrupted payments are imminent. Alternatively,
a ‘C’ IFS Rating is assigned to obligations that have experienced
ceased or interrupted payments, and with the potential for below average to poor
recoveries. Such obligations would possess a recovery assessment of
‘RR5’ (Below Average) or ‘RR6’ (Poor). |
| F1 |
Insurers are viewed as having a strong capacity to meet their near-term obligations. When an insurer rated in this rating category is designated with a (+) sign, it is viewed
as having a very strong capacity to meet near-term obligations. |
| F2 |
Insurers are viewed as having a good capacity to meet their near-term obligations. |
| F3 |
Insurers are viewed as having an adequate capacity to meet their near-term obligations. |
| B |
Insurers are viewed as having a weak capacity to meet their near-term obligations. |
| C |
Insurers are viewed as having a very weak capacity to meet their near-term obligations. |
| RR1 |
OUTSTANDING RECOVERY PROSPECTS GIVEN DEFAULT. ‘RR1’ rated securities have characteristics consistent with securities historically recovering 91%–100% of
current principal and related interest. |
| RR2 |
SUPERIOR RECOVERY PROSPECTS GIVEN DEFAULT. ‘RR2’ rated securities have characteristics consistent with securities historically recovering 71%–90% of current
principal and related interest. |
| RR3 |
GOOD RECOVERY PROSPECTS GIVEN DEFAULT. ‘RR3’ rated securities have characteristics consistent with securities historically recovering 51%–70% of current
principal and related interest. |
| RR4 |
AVERAGE RECOVERY PROSPECTS GIVEN DEFAULT. ‘RR4’ rated securities have characteristics consistent with securities historically recovering 31%–50% of current
principal and related interest. |
| RR5 |
BELOW AVERAGE RECOVERY PROSPECTS GIVEN DEFAULT. ‘RR5’ rated securities have characteristics consistent with securities historically recovering 11%–
30% of current principal and related interest. |
| RR6 |
POOR RECOVERY PROSPECTS GIVEN DEFAULT. ‘RR6’ rated securities have characteristics consistent with securities historically recovering 0%–10% of current
principal and related interest. |
| Aaa |
Insurance companies rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, subject to the
lowest level of credit risk. |
| Aa |
Insurance companies rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit risk. |
| A |
Insurance companies rated A are judged to be upper-medium grade and are subject to low credit risk. |
| Baa |
Insurance companies rated Baa are judged to be medium-grade and subject to moderate credit risk and as such may possess certain speculative characteristics. |
| Ba |
Insurance companies rated Ba are judged to be speculative and are subject to substantial
credit risk. |
| B |
Insurance companies rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk. |
| Caa |
Insurance companies rated Caa are judged to be speculative of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk. |
| Ca |
Insurance companies rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of recovery of principal and interest. |
| C |
Insurance companies rated C are the lowest rated and are typically in default, with little
prospect for recovery of principal or interest. |
| P-1 |
Ratings of Prime-1 reflect a superior ability to repay short-term debt obligations. |
| P-2 |
Ratings of Prime-2 reflect a strong ability to repay short-term debt obligations. |
| P-3 |
Ratings of Prime-3 reflect an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations. |
| P-4 |
Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime
rating categories. |
| SP-1 |
Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay debt service is given a plus (+) designation. |
| SP-2 |
Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse
financial and economic changes over the term of the notes. |
| SP-3 |
Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest. |
| D |
‘D’ is assigned upon failure to pay the note when due, completion of a distressed
debt restructuring, or the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of
similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for
example, due to automatic stay provisions. |
| MIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows, highly reliable liquidity support or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing. |
| MIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the preceding group. |
| MIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection
may be narrow, and market access for refinancing is likely to be less
well-established. |
| SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack sufficient margins of protection. |
| VMIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by the
superior short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal
protections that ensure the timely payment of purchase price upon
demand. |
| VMIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Good protection is afforded by the strong
short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections
that ensure the timely payment of purchase price upon demand.
|
| VMIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Adequate protection is afforded by
the satisfactory short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and
legal protections that ensure the timely payment of purchase price upon
demand. |
| SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Demand features rated in this
category may be supported by a liquidity provider that does not have a sufficiently
strong short-term rating or may lack the structural or legal protections
necessary to ensure the timely payment of purchase price upon
demand. |
| Pfd-1 |
Preferred shares rated Pfd-1 are generally of superior credit quality, and are supported
by entities with strong earnings and balance sheet characteristics. Pfd-1 ratings
generally correspond with issuers with a AAA or AA category reference
point.1 |
| Pfd-2 |
Preferred shares rated Pfd-2 are generally of good credit quality. Protection of dividends
and principal is still substantial, but earnings, the balance sheet and coverage ratios are
not as strong as Pfd-1 rated companies. Generally, Pfd-2 ratings correspond with
issuers with an A category or higher reference point. |
| Pfd-3 |
Preferred shares rated Pfd-3 are generally of adequate credit quality. While protection of
dividends and principal is still considered acceptable, the issuing entity is more
susceptible to adverse changes in financial and economic conditions, and there
may be other adverse conditions present which detract from debt protection.
Pfd-3 ratings generally correspond with issuers with a BBB category or higher
reference point. |
| Pfd-4 |
Preferred shares rated Pfd-4 are generally speculative, where the degree of protection
afforded to dividends and principal is uncertain, particularly during periods of economic
adversity. Issuers with preferred shares rated Pfd-4 generally correspond with
issuers with a BB category or higher reference point. |
| Pfd-5 |
Preferred shares rated Pfd-5 are generally highly speculative and the ability of the entity
to maintain timely dividend and principal payments in the future is highly uncertain.
Entities with a Pfd-5 rating generally correspond with issuers with a B category
or higher reference point. Preferred shares rated Pfd-5 often have
characteristics that, if not remedied, may lead to default. |
| D |
When the issuer has filed under any applicable bankruptcy, insolvency or winding up or
the issuer is in default per the legal documents, a downgrade to D may occur. Because
preferred share dividends are only payable when approved, the non-payment of a
preferred share dividend does not necessarily result in a D. DBRS Morningstar
may also use SD (Selective Default) in cases where only some securities are
impacted, such as the case of a “distressed exchange”. See the
Default Definition document posted on the website for more
information. |